Free 2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump (11-20) Download!

QUESTION 11
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface trunk
B.    show interface interface
C.    show ip interface brief
D.    show interface vlan
E.    show interface switchport

Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A.    spanning-tree uplinkfast
B.    spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.    spanning-tree backbonefast
D.    spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 13
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A.    It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.    It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.    It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.    It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 14
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A.    Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B.    A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C.    A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D.    Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E.    Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION 15
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    802.1q
C.    IGP
D.    ISL
E.    802.3u

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION 16
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A.    1 through 1001
B.    2 through 1001
C.    1 through 1002
D.    2 through 1005

Answer: B
Explanation:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 17
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A.    When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source
MAC address and the MAC address table.
B.    Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.    Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D.    Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

QUESTION 18
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B.    RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C.    RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D.    RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E.    RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F.    RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network. To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50 seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure.
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port – A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
* Designated port – A forwarding port for every LAN segment
* Alternate port – A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.
* Backup port – A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
* Disabled port – Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port

QUESTION 19
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B
Explanation:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operates at Layer 2 ?Data Link layer -> .

QUESTION 20
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

A.    source MAC address
B.    source IP address
C.    source switch port
D.    destination IP address
E.    destination port address
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: F
Explanation:
When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the interface if it is in its MAC address table. If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all interfaces except the one it was received on.

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-120 Dump full version.

clip_image001

Free 2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump (1-10) Download!

QUESTION 1
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A.    transport
B.    network
C.    presentation
D.    session
E.    application

Answer: E
Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model. The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A.    A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.    A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.    A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.    A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.    A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.    A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected interface (the router’s serial interface).
A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or other digital device to analog signals for a conventional copper twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming analog signal and converts it to a digital signal for the digital device. A CSU/DSU is used between two digital lines –
For more explanation of answer D, in telephony the local loop (also referred to as a subscriber line) is the physical link or circuit that connects from the demarcation point of the customer premises to the edge of the carrier or telecommunications service provider’s network. Therefore a modem terminates an analog local loop is correct.

clip_image001

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A.    application
B.    presentation
C.    session
D.    transport
E.    internet
F.    data link

Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

QUESTION 4
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A.    This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B.    This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C.    This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D.    This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E.    This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

QUESTION 5
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

A.    session
B.    transport
C.    network
D.    data link
E.    physical

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the hardware destination and source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A.    The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B.    The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C.    Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D.    Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E.    The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the interface between the network and the application. Examples include. Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary, BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include. JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include. RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include. TCP, UDP, and SPX.
The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to accommodate media with smaller maximum transmission unit sizes. Examples include. IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium.
The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols are necessarily concerned with the type of media in use. Examples includE. IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.

QUESTION 7
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A.    Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B.    Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C.    Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and
Layer 3 address information.
D.    Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E.    In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain
one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will
have only one root port.
F.    If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain -> .
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

QUESTION 8
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

A.    application
B.    internet
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B
Explanation:
The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing decision.

clip_image001[15]

QUESTION 9
Refer to exhibit: Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A.    the IP address of Switch 1
B.    the MAC address of Switch 1
C.    the IP address of Host C
D.    the MAC address of Host C
E.    the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F.    the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface

Answer: CF
Explanation:
While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed. So in this case Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. When the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with it own E1 interface’s MAC address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to Host C .

QUESTION 10
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

clip_image001[17]

A.    to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B.    to allow communication with devices on a different network
C.    to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D.    to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E.    to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F.    to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2.
MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct.
Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains physical address ->
On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default -> All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate –>

 

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-120 Dump full version.

clip_image001

Free Download Cisco CCNA 200-120 Practice Exams with PDF & VCE (101-110)

QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

Read more

1 572 573 574 575