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2.|2017 New CCNP 642-997 Exam Questions & Answers:
Which SCSI terminology is used to describe source and destination nodes?
A. hosts and targets
B. initiators and targets
C. HBA and disks
D. initiators and disks
E. HBA and targets
In computer data storage, a SCSI initiator is the endpoint that initiates a SCSI session, that is, sends a SCSI command. The initiator usually does not provide any Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs). On the other hand, a SCSI target is the endpoint that does not initiate sessions, but instead waits for initiators’ commands and provides required input/output data transfers. The target usually provides to the initiators one or more LUNs, because otherwise no read or write command would be possible.
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.
Which two items are services that are provided by Cisco Fabric Services? (Choose two.)
A. device alias distribution
B. VLAN database distribution
C. Kerberos proxy distribution
D. RSA key pair distribution
E. DPVM configuration distribution
The device alias application uses the Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) infrastructure to enable efficient database management and distribution. Device aliases use the coordinated distribution mode and the fabric-wide distribution scope.
DPVM can use CFS to distribute the database to all switches in the fabric. This allows devices to move anywhere and keep the same VSAN membership. You should enable CFS distribution on all switches in the fabric. Using the CFS infrastructure, each DPVM server learns the DPVM database from each of its neighboring switches during the ISL bring-up process. If you change the database locally, the DPVM server notifies its neighboring switches, and that database is updated by all switches in the fabric.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/C LIConfigurationGuide/ddas.html and
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true?
A. When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported.
B. HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers.
C. HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times.
D. The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address.
VRRP allows for transparent failover at the first-hop IP router by configuring a group of routers to share a virtual IP address. VRRP selects a master router in that group to handle all packets for the virtual IP address. The remaining routers are in standby and take over if the master router fails.
Refer to the exhibit. This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
GLBP prioritizes gateways to elect an active virtual gateway (AVG). If multiple gateways have the same priority, the gateway with the highest real IP address becomes the AVG. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each member of the GLBP group. Each member is the active virtual forwarder (AVF) for its assigned virtual MAC address, forwarding packets sent to its assigned virtual MAC address.
The AVG also answers Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address.
Load sharing is achieved when the AVG replies to the ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
Note: Packets received on a routed port destined for the GLBP virtual IP address terminate on the local router, regardless of whether that router is the active GLBP router or a redundant GLBP router. This termination includes ping and Telnet traffic. Packets received on a Layer 2 (VLAN) interface destined for the GLBP virtual IP address terminate on the active router.
Which function does the graceful restart feature allow a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router to perform?
A. Perform a rapid route convergence.
B. Initialize a standby supervisor transparently when one is present.
C. Remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart.
D. Maintain a management connection throughout a router restart.
Graceful Restart and Non Stop Routing both allow for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being restored (in the case of Graceful Restart) or refreshed (in the case of Non Stop Routing) following a processor switchover. When Graceful Restart is used, peer networking devices are informed, via protocol extensions prior to the event, of the SSO capable routers ability to perform graceful restart. The peer device must have the ability to understand this messaging. When a switchover occurs, the peer will continue to forward to the switching over router as instructed by the GR process for each particular protocol, even though in most cases the peering relationship needs to be rebuilt. Essentially, the peer router will give the switching over router a “grace” period to re-establish the neighbor relationship, whilecontinuing to forward to the routes from that peer.
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Each entry in a route map contains a combination of match and set statements. The match statements define the criteria for whether appropriate packets meet the particular policy (that is, the conditions to be met). The set clauses explain how the packets should be routed once they have met the match criteria.
You can mark the route-map statements as permit or deny.
You can interpret the statements as follows:
If the statement is marked as permit and the packets meet the match criteria, the set clause is applied. One of these actions involves choosing the next hop.
If a statement is marked as deny, the packets that meet the match criteria are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
If the statement is marked as permit and the packets do not match any route-map statements, the packets are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
What must be enabled on the interface of a multicast-enabled device to support the Source Specific Multicast feature?
A. IGMP version 3
B. IGMP version 2
C. IGMP version 1
IGMP is the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards track protocol used for hosts to signal multicast group membership to routers. Version 3 of this protocol supports source filtering, which is required for SSM. To run SSM with IGMPv3, SSM must be supported in the Cisco IOS router, the host where the application is running, and the application itself. IGMP v3lite and URD are two Cisco-developed transition solutions that enable the immediate development and deployment of SSM services, without the need to wait for the availability of full IGMPv3 support in host operating systems and SSM receiver applications. IGMP v3lite is a solution for application developers that allows immediate development of SSM receiver applications switching to IGMPv3 as soon as it becomes available. URD is a solution for content providers and content aggregators that enables them to deploy receiver applications that are not yet SSM enabled (through support for IGMPv3). IGMPv3, IGMP v3lite, and URD interoperate with each other, so that both IGMP v3lite and URD can easily be used as transitional solutions toward full IGMPv3 support in hosts.
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
With the Nexus 5×00 switch, FCoE functionality is a licensed feature. After the license is installed, FCoE configuration can be completed.
What is the Overlay Transport Virtualization site VLAN used for?
A. to allow the join interfaces at different sites to communicate
B. to detect devices at the site that are not capable of OTV
C. to allow multiple site AEDs to communicate with each other
D. to detect other OTV edge devices in the site
The edge device performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure. It is expected that at least two OTV edge devices are deployed at each data center site to improve the resiliency.
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