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QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

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A.    The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B.    The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C.    The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
D.    The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
E.    The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address. When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no static address mapping is required.

QUESTION 112
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B
Explanation:
With serial point to point links there are two options for the encapsulation. The default, HDLC, is Cisco proprietary and works only with other Cisco routers. The other option is PPP which is standards based and supported by all vendors.

QUESTION 113
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A.    reduced cost
B.    better throughput
C.    broadband incompatibility
D.    increased security
E.    scalability
F.    reduced latency

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
IPsec offer a number of advantages over point to point WAN links, particularly when multiple locations are involved. These include reduced cost, increased security since all traffic is encrypted, and increased scalability as s single WAN link can be used to connect to all locations in a VPN, where as a point to point link would need to be provisioned to each location.

QUESTION 114
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3 dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined, active

QUESTION 115
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?

A.    show frame-relay lmi
B.    show frame-relay map
C.    show frame-relay pvc
D.    show interfaces serial

Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting Cisco devices with non-Cisco devices, you must use IETF4 encapsulation on both devices. Check the encapsulation type on the Cisco device with the show frame-relay map exec command.

QUESTION 116
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A.    Remove the IP address from the physical interface.
B.    Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
C.    Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
D.    Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.
E.    Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.
F.    Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
For multiple PVC’s on a single interface, you must use subinterfaces, with each subinterface configured for each PVC. Each subinterface will then have its own IP address, and no IP address will be assigned to the main interface.

QUESTION 117
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B.    All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D.    All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network. Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

QUESTION 118
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B.    CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C.    CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D.    CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E.    CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F.    CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
CHAP is an authentication scheme used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the identity of remote clients. CHAP periodically verifies the identity of the client by using a three-way handshake. This happens at the time of establishing the initial link (LCP), and may happen again at any time afterwards. The verification is based on a shared secret (such as the client user’s password).

QUESTION 119
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

A.    defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B.    defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C.    defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D.    defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Answer: D
Explanation:
This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the 192.168.1.2 address. In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.

QUESTION 120
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A.    NCP
B.    ISDN
C.    SLIP
D.    LCP
E.    DLCI

Answer: D
Explanation:
The PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) is documented in RFC 1661. LPC negotiates link and PPP parameters to dynamically configure the data link layer of a PPP connection. Common LCP options include the PPP MRU, the authentication protocol, compression of PPP header fields, callback, and multilink options.

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QUESTION 101
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A.    A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B.    A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C.    A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must
resolve the conflict.
E.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable
by the administrator.
F.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the
server is rebooted.

Answer: D
Explanation:
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html

QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?

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A.    ACDB
B.    BADC
C.    DBAC
D.    CDBA

Answer: D
Explanation:
Routers go line by line through an access list until a match is found and then will not look any further, even if a more specific of better match is found later on in the access list. So, it it best to begin with the most specific entries first, in this cast the two hosts in line C and D. Then, include the subnet (B) and then finally the rest of the traffic (A).

QUESTION 103
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data + INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not available
+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch
+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.

QUESTION 104
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?

A.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Answer: B
Explanation:
This command tells the router to first use CHAP and then go to PAP if CHAP isn’t available.

QUESTION 105
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or more data flows between IPSec peers.

QUESTION 106
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol (layer 2 in the OSI model )

QUESTION 107
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

A.    This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B.    The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C.    102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D.    This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E.    The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Broadcast is added to the configurations of the frame relay, so the PVC supports broadcast, allowing the routing protocol updates that use the broadcast update mechanism to be forwarded across itself.

QUESTION 108
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

A.    PPP
B.    WAP
C.    DSL
D.    L2TPv3
E.    Ethernet

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol used for WAN connections.
DSL is also considered a WAN connection, as it can be used to connect networks, typically when used with VPN technology.

QUESTION 109
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

A.    HDLC
B.    PPP
C.    X.25
D.    Frame Relay

Answer: B
Explanation:
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION 110
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A.    IETF
B.    ANSI Annex D
C.    Q9333-A Annex A
D.    HDLC

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).

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Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively. HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.

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QUESTION 91
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

A.    BackboneFast
B.    UplinkFast
C.    Root Guard
D.    BPDU Guard
E.    BPDU Filter

Answer: D
Explanation:
We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports. With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.

QUESTION 92
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A.    show ip access-lists
B.    show access-lists
C.    show interface
D.    show ip interface
E.    list ip interface

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect answer:
show ip access-lists does not show interfaces affected by an ACL.

QUESTION 93
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

A.    802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C.    A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.

QUESTION 94
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A.    Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B.    Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C.    The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D.    A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Private RFC 1918 IP addresses are meant to be used by organizations locally within their own network only, and can not be used globally for Internet use.

QUESTION 95
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)

A.    ping
B.    tracert
C.    ipconfig
D.    show ip route
E.    winipcfg
F.    show interfaces

Answer: ADF
Explanation:
Ping, show ip route, and show interfaces are all valid troubleshooting IOS commands. Tracert, ipconfig, and winipcfg are PC commands, not IOS.

QUESTION 96
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

A.    during high traffic periods
B.    after broken links are re-established
C.    when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D.    in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E.    when a dual ring topology is in use

Answer: D
Explanation:
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an improperly implemented redundant topology.

QUESTION 97
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

A.    The command is rejected.
B.    The port turns amber.
C.    The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D.    The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The “switchport access vlan 3” will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3.

QUESTION 98
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

A.    Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B.    Router# show ip eigrp topology
C.    Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
D.    Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Answer: D
Explanation:
Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth Round Trip Timer ?SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:

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QUESTION 99
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
Explanation:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

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A.    Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B.    Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C.    Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D.    Ensure the switch has power.
E.    Reboot all of the devices.
F.    Reseat all cables.

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check cable type, power and how they are plugged in.

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QUESTION 81
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B.    They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C.    They are always present in the NAT table.
D.    They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Static NAT is to map a single outside IP address to a single inside IP address. This is typically done to allow incoming connections from the outside (Internet) to the inside. Since these are static, they are always present in the NAT table even if they are not actively in use.

QUESTION 82
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

A.    You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B.    You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C.    You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D.    You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Answer: C
Explanation:
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface + We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface

QUESTION 83
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A.    access-list 110 permit ip any any
B.    access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
C.    access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
D.    access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Answer: B
Explanation:
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a standard access list.

QUESTION 84
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Answer: AC
Explanation:
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255 will include the 192.168.146.0 and 192.168.147.0 subnets, while access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255 will include

QUESTION 85
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces ->
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login.

QUESTION 86
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.    SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B.    SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C.    SW1#show running-config
D.    SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E.    SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Answer: CD
Explanation:
We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running-config” or “show port-security interface ” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security interface ” command is shown below:

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QUESTION 87
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.
E.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In the interface configuration mode, the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky enables sticky learning. When entering this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 88
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

A.    Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
B.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C.    Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex. Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip default-gateway command must be used.

QUESTION 89
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

A.    Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B.    Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C.    Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D.    Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface.

QUESTION 90
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A.    The process id is configured improperly.
B.    The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C.    The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D.    The network number is configured improperly.
E.    The AS is configured improperly.
F.    The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0.”

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QUESTION 71
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B
Explanation:
maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.
Syntax Description
maximum
Maximum number of parallel routes that OSPF can install in a routing table. The range is from 1 to 16 routes.
Command Default
8 paths

QUESTION 72
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

A.    show cdp neigbors
B.    show session
C.    show users
D.    show vty logins

Answer: B
Explanation:
The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active Telnet connections”, meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.

QUESTION 73
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A.    a backup route, stored in the routing table
B.    a primary route, stored in the routing table
C.    a backup route, stored in the topology table
D.    a primary route, stored in the topology table

Answer: C
Explanation:
EIGRP uses the Neighbor Table to list adjacent routers. The Topology Table list all the learned routers to destination whilst the Routing Table contains the best route to a destination, which is known as the Successor. The Feasible Successor is a backup route to a destination which is kept in the Topology Table.

QUESTION 74
Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?

A.    Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length
of the agreement.
B.    Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
C.    Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address
must be made.
D.    Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following:
Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was assigned, and may terminate the lease, releasing the IP address.

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A.    NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B.    NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C.    NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D.    Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E.    NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F.    NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
By not revealing the internal Ip addresses, NAT adds some security to the inside network -> F is correct.
NAT has to modify the source IP addresses in the packets -> E is not correct.
Connection from the outside of the network through a “NAT” network is more difficult than a more network because IP addresses of inside hosts are hidden -> C is not correct.
In order for IPsec to work with NAT we need to allow additional protocols, including Internet Key Exchange (IKE), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) -> more complex -> A is not correct.
By allocating specific public IP addresses to inside hosts, NAT eliminates the need to re-address the inside hosts -> B is correct.
NAT does conserve addresses but not through host MAC-level multiplexing. It conserves addresses by allowing many private IP addresses to use the same public IP address to go to the Internet -> C is not correct.

QUESTION 76
On which options are standard access lists based?

A.    destination address and wildcard mask
B.    destination address and subnet mask
C.    source address and subnet mask
D.    source address and wildcard mask

Answer: D
Explanation:
Standard ACL’s only examine the source IP address/mask to determine if a match is made. Extended ACL’s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.

QUESTION 77
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?

A.    standard
B.    extended
C.    dynamic
D.    reflexive

Answer: C
Explanation:
We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094524.shtml

QUESTION 78
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

A.    Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
B.    Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C.    Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting
the DHCP server to renew the lease.
D.    Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length
of the agreement.

Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP works in a client/server mode and operates like any other client/server relationship. When a PC connects to a DHCP server, the server assigns or leases an IP address to that PC. The PC connects to the network with that leased IP address until the lease expires. The host must contact the DHCP server periodically to extend the lease. This lease mechanism ensures that hosts that move or power off do not hold onto addresses that they do not need. The DHCP server returns these addresses to the address pool and reallocates them as necessary.

QUESTION 79
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B.    Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C.    Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D.    Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E.    Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F.    Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Answer: CF
Explanation:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model. DHCP servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such as DNS and default gateways to hosts.

QUESTION 80
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.)

A.    network or subnetwork IP address
B.    broadcast address on the network
C.    IP address leased to the LAN
D.    IP address used by the interfaces
E.    manually assigned address to the clients
F.    designated IP address to the DHCP server

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Network or subnetwork IP address (for example 11.0.0.0/8 or 13.1.0.0/16) and broadcast address (for example 23.2.1.255/24) should never be assignable to hosts. When try to assign these addresses to hosts, you will receive an error message saying that they can’t be assignable.

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QUESTION 61
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A.    It supports VLSM.
B.    It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C.    It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D.    It increases routing overhead on the network.
E.    It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F.    It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?

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A.    The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B.    The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C.    The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D.    The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E.    The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config running- config” will copy the startup config (which is empty) over the running config (which is configured by the administrator). So everything configured was deleted. Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the register to 0?142. This will make the “System Configuration Dialog” appear at the next reload.

QUESTION 63
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A.    90
B.    100
C.    110
D.    120

Answer: C
Explanation:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 64
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    provides common view of entire topology
B.    exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C.    calculates shortest path
D.    utilizes event-triggered updates
E.    utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area” so we can say although it is a bit unclear.
Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when a change occurs in the network topology so
Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path -> . Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing protocol utilizes event-triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) ->

QUESTION 65
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

A.    enable cdp
B.    cdp enable
C.    cdp run
D.    run cdp

Answer: C
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is an interface command, not global.

QUESTION 66
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)

A.    RAM
B.    NVRAM
C.    flash memory
D.    HTTP server
E.    TFTP server
F.    Telnet server

Answer: CE
Explanation:
The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:
1. + Flash (the default location)
2. + TFTP server
3. + ROM (used if no other source is found)

QUESTION 67
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

A.    All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID
B.    Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C.    Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D.    The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E.    Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Multiple OSPF processes can be configured on a router using multiple process ID’s.
The valid process ID’s are shown below:
Edge-B(config)#router ospf ?
<1-65535> Process ID

QUESTION 68
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

A.    one physical interface for each subinterface
B.    one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C.    a management domain for each subinterface
D.    subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E.    one subinterface per VLAN
F.    subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation can be found here:
http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm

QUESTION 69
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A.    Router(config)# router ospf 0
B.    Router(config)# router ospf 1
C.    Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: BE
Explanation:
In the router ospf
command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number -> but To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this process -> .

QUESTION 70
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

A.    a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
B.    a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
C.    a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
D.    an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
E.    a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
F.    a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop

Answer: A
Explanation:
When there is more than one way to reach a destination, it will choose the best one based on a couple of things. First, it will choose the route that has the longest match; meaning the most specific route. So, in this case the /24 routes will be chosen over the /16 routes. Next, from all the /24 routes it will choose the one with the lowest administrative distance. Directly connected routes have an AD of 1 so this will be the route chosen.

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QUESTION 51
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

A.    a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B.    a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C.    a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D.    a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Answer: A
Explanation:
Different VLANs can’t communicate with each other , they can communicate with the help of Layer3 router. Hence , it is needed to connect a router to a switch , then make the sub-interface on the router to connect to the switch, establishing Trunking links to achieve communications of devices which belong to different VLANs.
When using VLANs in networks that have multiple interconnected switches, you need to use VLAN trunking between the switches. With VLAN trunking, the switches tag each frame sent between switches so that the receiving switch knows to what VLAN the frame belongs. End user devices connect to switch ports that provide simple connectivity to a single VLAN each. The attached devices are unaware of any VLAN structure.
By default, only hosts that are members of the same VLAN can communicate. To change this and allow inter-VLAN communication, you need a router or a layer 3 switch.
Here is the example of configuring the router for inter-vlan communication RouterA(config)#int f0/0.1
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation ?
dot1Q IEEE 802.1Q Virtual LAN
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q or isl VLAN ID RouterA(config-subif)# ip address x.x.x.x y.y.y.y

QUESTION 52
Which command displays CPU utilization?

A.    show protocols
B.    show process
C.    show system
D.    show version

Answer: B
Explanation:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted)

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A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown:

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+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph
For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 53
What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B.    Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C.    Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D.    Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E.    Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Distance means how far and Vector means in which direction. Distance Vector routing protocols pass periodic copies of routing table to neighbor routers and accumulate distance vectors. In distance vector routing protocols, routers discover the best path to destination from each neighbor. The routing updates proceed step by step from router to router.

QUESTION 54
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A.    show ip ospf link-state
B.    show ip ospf lsa database
C.    show ip ospf neighbors
D.    show ip ospf database

Answer: D
Explanation:
The “show ip ospf database” command displays the link states. Here is an example:
Here is the lsa database on R2.
R2#show ip ospf database
OSPF Router with ID (2.2.2.2) (Process ID 1)
Router Link States (Area 0)
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 793 0x80000003 0x004F85 210.4.4.4 10.4.4.4 776 0x80000004 0x005643 1111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000005 0x0059CA 2133.133.133.133 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000005 0x00B5B1 2 Net Link States (Area 0)
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum10.1.1.1 111.111.111.111 794 0x80000001 0x001E8B10.2.2.3 133.133.133.133 812 0x80000001 0x004BA910.4.4.1 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000001 0x007F1610.4.4.3 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000001 0x00C31F

QUESTION 55
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)

A.    ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B.    ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C.    ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D.    ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E.    ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Answer: CE
Explanation:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 56
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A.    hop count
B.    administrative distance
C.    link bandwidth
D.    link delay
E.    link cost

Answer: B
Explanation:
By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred over all dynamic routing protocols. If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the static route be used only as a backup, you need to increase the AD of the static route so that it is higher than the dynamic routing protocol.

QUESTION 57
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)

A.    the amount of available ROM
B.    the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C.    the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D.    show version
E.    show processes
F.    show running-config

Answer: BD
Explanation:
When upgrading new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have to check if the Flash has enough memory or not. Also running the new IOS may require more RAM than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the “show version” command.

QUESTION 58
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

A.    show reload
B.    show boot
C.    show running-config
D.    show version

Answer: D
Explanation:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router

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QUESTION 59
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?

A.    tracert address
B.    traceroute address
C.    telnet address
D.    ssh address

Answer: B
Explanation:
In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and
measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the route is recorded as the round-trip times of the packets received from each successive host (remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time spent to establish the connection. Traceroute proceeds unless all (three) sent packets are lost more than twice, then the connection is lost and the route cannot be evaluated. Ping, on the other hand, only computes the final round-trip times from the destination point.

QUESTION 60
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

A.    hello packets
B.    SAP messages sent by other routers
C.    LSAs from other routers
D.    beacons received on point-to-point links
E.    routing tables received from other link-state routers
F.    TTL packets from designated routers

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.

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QUESTION 41
How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

A.    by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
B.    by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
C.    by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
D.    by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
E.    by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

Answer: D
Explanation:
The modified EUI-64 format interface identifier is derived from the 48-bit link-layer (MAC) address by inserting the hexadecimal number FFFE between the upper three bytes (OUI field) and the lower three bytes (serial number) of the link layer address.

QUESTION 42
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

A.    2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B.    2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C.    FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D.    2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION 43
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

A.    one-to-many communication model
B.    one-to-nearest communication model
C.    any-to-many communication model
D.    a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E.    the same address for multiple devices in the group
F.    delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Answer: BEF
Explanation:
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast
address. Anycast is designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is apart of that anycast group.
The sender creates a packet and forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

QUESTION 44
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A.    255.255.255.0
B.    255.255.255.128
C.    255.255.252.0
D.    255.255.255.224
E.    255.255.255.192
F.    255.255.248.0

Answer: BE
Explanation:
Subnetting is used to break the network into smaller more efficient subnets to prevent excessive rates of Ethernet packet collision in a large network. Such subnets can be arranged hierarchically, with the organization’s network address space (see also Autonomous System) partitioned into a tree-like structure. Routers are used to manage traffic and constitute borders between subnets. A routing prefix is the sequence of leading bits of an IP address that precede the portion of the address used as host identifier. In IPv4 networks, the routing prefix is often expressed as a “subnet mask”, which is a bit mask covering the number of bits used in the prefix. An IPv4 subnet mask is frequently expressed in quad-dotted decimal representation, e.g., 255.255.255.0 is the subnet mask for the 192.168.1.0 network with a 24-bit routing prefix (192.168.1.0/24).

QUESTION 45
Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

A.    FF02::1
B.    FF02::2
C.    FF02::3
D.    FF02::4

Answer: B
Explanation:
Well-known IPv6 multicast addresses:
Address
Description
ff02::1
All nodes on the local network segment
ff02::2
All routers on the local network segment

QUESTION 46
Which IPv6 address is valid?

A.    2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B.    2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C.    2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D.    2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION 47
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

A.    ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
B.    ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C.    ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
D.    ipv6 autoconfig

Answer: B
Explanation:
To assign an IPv6 address to an interface, use the “ipv6 address” command and specify the IP address you wish to use.

QUESTION 48
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

A.    FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B.    FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C.    FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D.    FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), the address block fe80::/10 has been reserved for link- local unicast addressing. The actual link local addresses are assigned with the prefix fe80::/64. They may be assigned by automatic (stateless) or stateful (e.g. manual) mechanisms.

QUESTION 49
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

A.    10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B.    10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C.    10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D.    10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E.    10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Answer: D
Explanation:
We need 113 point-to-point links which equal to 113 sub-networks < 128 so we need to borrow 7 bits (because 2^7 = 128).
The network used for point-to-point connection should be /30.
So our initial network should be 30 ?7 = 23.
So 10.10.0.0/23 is the correct answer.
You can understand it more clearly when writing it in binary form:
/23 = 1111 1111.1111 1110.0000 0000
/30 = 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1100 (borrow 7 bits)

QUESTION 50
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

A.    It checks the configuration register.
B.    It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C.    It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D.    It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Default (normal) Boot SequencePower on Router – Router does POST – Bootstrap starts IOS load – Check configuration registerto see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102
to read startup-config in NVRAM / or 0x2142 to start in “setup-mode”) – check the startup-config file in NVRAM for boot-system commands – load IOS from Flash.

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QUESTION 31
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

A.    the switch with the highest MAC address
B.    the switch with the lowest MAC address
C.    the switch with the highest IP address
D.    the switch with the lowest IP address

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value, more commonly referred to as a BID. This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch’s MAC address, with the priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process.
For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11- 22-33-44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.

QUESTION 32
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B.    VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C.    VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D.    VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E.    VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F.    VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Answer: AEF
Explanation:
VLAN technology is often used in practice, because it can better control layer2 broadcast to improve network security. This makes network more flexible and scalable. Packet filtering is a function of firewall instead of VLAN.

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A.    reduces routing table entries
B.    auto-negotiation of media rates
C.    efficient utilization of MAC addresses
D.    dedicated communications between devices
E.    ease of management and troubleshooting

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Here are some of the benefits of hierarchical addressing:
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=174107

QUESTION 34
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

A.    B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B.    B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
C.    B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
D.    B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Answer: D
Explanation:
There are two ways that an IPv6 address can be additionally compressed: compressing leading
zeros and substituting a group of consecutive zeros with a single double colon (::). Both of these can be used in any number of combinations to notate the same address. It is important to note that the double colon (::) can only be used once within a single IPv6 address notation. So, the extra 0’s can only be compressed once.

QUESTION 35
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A.    Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B.    Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C.    Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D.    There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E.    If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Below is the list of common kinds of IPv6 addresses:
QUESTION 36
The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

A.    no broadcast
B.    change of source address in the IPv6 header
C.    change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D.    Telnet access does not require a password
E.    autoconfiguration
F.    NAT

Answer: AE
Explanation:
IPv6 does not use broadcasts, and autoconfiguration is a feature of IPV6 that allows for hosts to automatically obtain an IPv6 address.

QUESTION 37
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

A.    IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B.    IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C.    IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D.    IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E.    IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Answer: C
Explanation:
For the 192.168.20.24/29 network, the usable hosts are 192.168.24.25 (router) ?192.168.24.30 (used for the sales server).

QUESTION 38
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

A.    0.0.0.240
B.    255.255.255.252
C.    255.255.255.0
D.    255.255.255.224
E.    255.255.255.240

Answer: D
Explanation:
For a class C network, a mask of 255.255.255.224 will allow for up to 8 networks with 32 IP addresses each (30 usable).

QUESTION 39
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

A.    24
B.    4
C.    8
D.    16

Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.

QUESTION 40
What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

A.    enable dual-stack routing
B.    configure IPv6 directly
C.    configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
D.    use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E.    statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
F.    use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Several methods are used terms of migration including tunneling, translators, and dual stack. Tunnels are used to carry one protocol inside another, while translators simply translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets. Dual stack uses a combination of both native IPv4 and IPv6. With dual stack, devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 together and if IPv6 communication is possible that is the preferred protocol. Hosts can simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content.

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QUESTION 21
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

A.    added security
B.    dedicated bandwidth
C.    provides segmentation
D.    allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E.    contains collisions

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A VLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis.
Security:
VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate with them
LAN Segmentation
VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2 broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN, switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.

QUESTION 22
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

A.    pingaddress
B.    tracertaddress
C.    tracerouteaddress
D.    arpaddress

Answer: A
Explanation:
ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be no router hops involved.

QUESTION 23
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following
switched network topology changes.
B.    It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C.    It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D.    It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E.    It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked and non-marked. Non-marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A.    SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B.    SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C.    SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D.    SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E.    SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F.    SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports. Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports..
Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:

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SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU.
One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself) with an initial value of 0.
Now let’s have a look at the topology again

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SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port ->
Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

clip_image001[7]
+ DP: Designated Port (forwarding state)
+ RP: Root Port (forwarding state)

QUESTION 25
What is one benefit of PVST+?

A.    PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B.    PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C.    PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D.    PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load-balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. You can create different logical topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your links are used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root switch. This root switch propagates the spanning-tree information associated with that VLAN to all other switches in the network. Because each switch has the same information about the network, this process ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12.2_55_se /configuration/guide/swstp.html

QUESTION 26
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

A.    transparent
B.    auto
C.    on
D.    desirable
E.    blocking
F.    forwarding

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 27
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B.    802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C.    802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D.    802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E.    802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
By default, 802.1Q trunk defined Native VLAN in order to forward unmarked frame. Switches can forward Layer 2 frame from Native VLAN on unmarked trunks port. Receiver switches will transmit all unmarked packets to Native VLAN. Native VLAN is the default VLAN configuration of port. Note for the 802.1Q trunk ports between two devices, the same Native VLAN configuration is required on both sides of the link. If the Native VLAN in 802.1Q trunk ports on same trunk link is properly configured, it could lead to layer 2 loops. The 802.1Q trunk link transmits VLAN information through Ethernet.

QUESTION 28
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

A.    converged
B.    redundant
C.    provisioned
D.    spanned

Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

QUESTION 29
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

A.    transparent
B.    auto
C.    on
D.    desirable
E.    client
F.    forwarding

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B.    RSTP defines new port roles.
C.    RSTP defines no new port states.
D.    RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E.    RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
When network topology changes, rapid spanning tree protocol (IEEE802.1W, referred to as RSTP) will speed up significantly the speed to re-calculate spanning tree. RSTP not only defines the role of other ports: alternative port and backup port, but also defines status of 3 ports: discarding status, learning status, forwarding status.
RSTP is 802.1D standard evolution, not revolution. It retains most of the parameters, and makes no changes.

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