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QUESTION 1
Which two statements correctly describe the relation between a data file and the logical database structures? (Choose two.)

A.    An extent cannot spread across data files.
B.    A segment cannot spread across data files.
C.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
D.    A data file can have only one segment created in it.
E.    A data block can spread across multiple data files as it can consist of multiple operating system (OS)
blocks.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding a tablespace? (Choose two.)

A.    It can span multiple databases
B.    It can consist of multiple data files
C.    It can contain blocks of different files
D.    It can contains segments of different sizes
E.    It can contains a part of nonpartitioned segment

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)

A.    EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump
B.    DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used indedendently of the DATA Pump clients
C.    Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege
D.    Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Release 9.x
E.    EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Identify the two situations in which the alert log file is updated with details. (Choose two.)

A.    Running a query on a table returns “ORA-600: Internal Error”
B.    Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-01722: Invalid Number”
C.    Creating a table returns “ORA-00955: name is already used by an existing object’
D.    Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.PK_TECHP) violated.”
E.    Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX…REBUILD fails with an error “ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block @ 50).”
F.    Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX …. REBUILD fails with an error “ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file #14, block #50).”

Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about alerts? (Choose two.)

A.    Clearing an alert sends the alert to the alert history
B.    Response actions cannot be specified with server-generated alerts
C.    The nonthreshold alerts appear in the DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS view
D.    Server-generated alerts notify the problems that cannot be resolved automatically and require
administrators to be notified

Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Examine the following steps performed on a database instance:
1. The DBA grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the SKD user with ADMIN OPTION
2. The SKD user creates a table
3. The SKD user grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the HR user
4. The HR user creates a table
5. The DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE system privilege from SKD
Which statement is true after step 5 is performed?

A.    The table created by SKD is not accessible and SKD cannot create new tables
B.    The tables created by SKD and HR remain, but both cannot create new tables ActualTests.com
C.    The table created by HR remains and HR still has the CREATE TABLE system privilege
D.    The table created by HR remains and HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege to other users

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You execute this command to drop the ITEM table, which has the primary key referred in the ORDERS table:
SQL> DROP TABLE scott.item CASCADE CONSTRAINTS PURGE;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the command? (Choose two.)

A.    No flashback is possible to bring back the ITEM table.
B.    The ORDERS table is dropped along with the ITEM table.
C.    The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are disabled.
D.    The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are removed.
E.    The table definition of the ITEM table and associated indexes are placed in the recycle bin.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user. The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
 clip_image001[1]

A.    The command executes successfully
B.    The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT
C.    The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without ADMIN_OPTION
D.    The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You executed this command to create a temporary table:
   SQL> CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE report_work_area (
                     startdate DATE,
                     enddate  DATE,
                     class     CHAR(20)
             ) ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS;
Which statement is true about the rows inserted into the REPORT_WORK_AREA table during a transaction?

A.    The rows stay in the table only until session termination
B.    The rows stay in the table only until the next transaction starts on the table
C.    The rows are visible to all current sessions after the transaction in committed
D.    The rows stay available for subsequent sessions after the transaction is committed

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You want to access employee details contained in flat files as part of the EMPLOYEE table. You plan to add a new column to the EMPLOYEE table to achieve this. Which data types would you
use for the new column?

A.    CLOB
B.    BLOB
C.    BFILE
D.    LONG RAW

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The HR user creates a stand-alone procedure as follows and grants the EXECUTE privilege on the procedure to many database users:
   CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_dept ( v_deptno NUMBER, v_dname VARCHAR2, v_mgr NUMBER, v_loc NUMBER)
   BEGIN
         INSERT INTO hr.departments VALUES (v_deptno, v_dname, v_mgr, v_loc);
   END;
The users having permission to execute the procedure are able to insert records into the DEPARTMENTS table even though they do not have the INSERT privilege on the table. You want only those users who have privileges on the DEPARTMENTS table to be able to execute the procedure successfully. What would you suggest to the PL/SQL developers to achieve this?

A.    Create the procedure with definer’s right.
B.    Create the procedure with invoker’s right.
C.    Grant the EXECUTE privilege with GRANT OPTION on the procedure to selected users.
D.    Create the procedure as part of a PL/SQL package and grant the EXECUTE privilege on the package
to selected users.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Examine the following command that is used to create a table:
   SQL> CREATE TABLE orders (
                        oid NUMBER(6) PRIMARY KEY,
                        odate DATE,
                        ccode NUMBER (6),
                        oamt NUMBER(10,2)
             ) TABLESPACE users;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the above command? (Choose two.)

A.    A CHECK constraint is created on the OID column
B.    A NOT NULL constraint is created on the OID column
C.    The ORDERS table is the only object created in the USERS tablespace
D.    The ORDERS table and a unique index are created in the USERS tablespace
E.    The ORDERS table is created in the USERS tablepsace and a unique index is created on the OID
column in the SYSTEM tablespace

Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident. Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
 clip_image002

A.    The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR
B.    The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged
C.    The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information
D.    The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle Support

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What can you achieve by implementing reverse key index?

A.    Reverse the bytes of each column indexed including the row ID
B.    Store a bitmap for each key value instead of a list of row IDs in the leaf node
C.    Prevent contention on the highest leaf block when using sequences to generate keys
D.    Remove repeated key values from the index to fit more index entries in a given amount of disk space

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You execute the following command to audit database activities:
SQL>AUDIT DROP ANY TABLE BY scott BY SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
What is the effect of this command?

A.    One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed in the session
of SCOTT
B.    One audit record is generated for the session when SCOTT grants the DROP ANY TABLE privilege
to other users
C.    One audit record is created for the whole session if user SCOTT successfully drops one or more
tables in his session
D.    One audit record is created for every session of any other user in which a table owned by SCOTT
is dropped successfully
E.    One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed by any user to
drop tables owned by SCOTT

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE commands:
CREATE TABLE orders
(ord_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY,
ord_date DATE,
cust_id NUMBER(4));
CREATE TABLE ord_items
(ord_no NUMBER(2),
item_no NUMBER(3),
qty NUMBER(3) CHECK (qty BETWEEN 100 AND 200),
expiry_date date CHECK (expiry_date > SYSDATE),
CONSTRAINT it_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no,item_no),
CONSTRAINT ord_fk FOREIGN KEY(ord_no) REFERENCES orders(ord_no));
The above command fails when executed. What could be the reason?

A.    SYSDATE cannot be used with the CHECK constraint.
B.    The BETWEEN clause cannot be used for the CHECK constraint.
C.    The CHECK constraint cannot be placed on columns having the DATE data type.
D.    ORD_NO and ITEM_NO cannot be used as a composite primary key because ORD_NO is also
the FOREIGN KEY.

Answer: A
Explanation:
CHECK Constraint
The CHECK constraint defines a condition that each row must satisfy. The condition can use the same constructs as the query conditions, with the following exceptions:
References to the CURRVAL, NEXTVAL, LEVEL, and ROWNUM pseudocolumns Calls to SYSDATE, UID, USER, and USERENV functions
Queries that refer to other values in other rows
A single column can have multiple CHECK constraints that refer to the column in its definition. There is no limit to the number of CHECK constraints that you can define on a column. CHECK constraints can be defined at the column level or table level.
CREATE TABLE employees
(…
salary NUMBER(8,2) CONSTRAINT emp_salary_min
CHECK (salary > 0),

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Using the CUSTOMERS table, y ou need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers.
Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message ” Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
 clip_image001

A.    SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B.    SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C.    SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Answer: D
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:
NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 3
Examine the structure of the PROGRAMS table:
name              Null            Type
   ——           ———      ——-
PROG_ID          NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
PROG_COST                        NUMBER(8,2)
START_DATE      NOT NULL       DATE
END_DATE DATE
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE)
FROM programs;
B.    SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE))
FROM programs;
C.    SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’)
FROM programs;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Answer: AD
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:
NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)
MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 The result can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2, the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and strings, which is not possible!
The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 4
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:
name                 Null         Type
   ——             ———    ——-
PROD_ID             NOT NULL     NUMBER(4)
PROD_NAME                         VARCHAR2(25)
PROD_EXPIRY_DATE                 DATE
Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15,”)
FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15)
FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?

A.    Both the statements execute and give different results.
B.    Both the statements execute and give the same result.
C.    Only the first SQL statement executes successfully.
D.    Only the second SQL statement executes successfully.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Using the NVL2 Function
The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned.
Syntax
NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3)
In the syntax:
expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null

QUESTION 5
Examine the structure of the INVOICE table.
Name           Null           Type
   ——        ———      ——-
INV_NO        NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
INV_DATE                       DATE
INV_AMT                        NUMBER(10,2)
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,’Pending’,’Incomplete’)
FROM invoice;
B.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_date,’Not Available’)
FROM invoice;
C.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,sysdate-inv_date,sysdate)
FROM invoice;
D.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_amt*.25,’Not Available’)
FROM invoice;

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The NVL2 Function
The NVL2 function provides an enhancement to NVL but serves a very similar purpose. It evaluates whether a column or expression of any data type is null or not.
5-6 The NVL function\
If the first term is not null, the second parameter is returned, else the third parameter is returned. Recall that the NVL function is different since it returns the original term if it is not null. The NVL2 function takes three mandatory parameters. Its syntax is NVL2(original, ifnotnull, ifnull), where original represents the term being tested. Ifnotnull is returned if original is not null, and ifnull is returned if original is null. The data types of the ifnotnull and ifnull parameters must be compatible, and they cannot be of type LONG.
They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to convert ifnull to the type of the ifnotnull parameter. The data type returned by the NVL2 function is the same as that of the ifnotnull parameter.

QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE commands:
CREATE TABLE orders
(ord_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY,
ord_date DATE,
cust_id NUMBER(4));
CREATE TABLE ord_items
(ord_no NUMBER(2),
item_no NUMBER(3),
qty NUMBER(3) CHECK (qty BETWEEN 100 AND 200),
expiry_date date CHECK (expiry_date > SYSDATE),
CONSTRAINT it_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no,item_no),
CONSTRAINT ord_fk FOREIGN KEY(ord_no) REFERENCES orders(ord_no));
The above command fails when executed. What could be the reason?

A.    SYSDATE cannot be used with the CHECK constraint.
B.    The BETWEEN clause cannot be used for the CHECK constraint.
C.    The CHECK constraint cannot be placed on columns having the DATE data type.
D.    ORD_NO and ITEM_NO cannot be used as a composite primary key because ORD_NO is also
the FOREIGN KEY.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B.    A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C.    A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D.    Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E.    A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F.    When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the
column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer:
Asub query can retrieve zero or more rows
Csub query is not SQL query statement
Dsub query can be nested
Egroup function can be use with sub query

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.)

A.    Subqueries can contain GROUP BY and ORDER BY clauses.
B.    Main query and subquery can get data from different tables.
C.    Main query and subquery must get data from the same tables.
D.    Subqueries can contain ORDER BY but not the GROUP BY clause.
E.    Only one column or expression can be compared between the main query and subquery.
F.    Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the main query and subquery.

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
SUBQUERIES can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses
of a query.
A subquery can have any of the usual clauses for selection and projection. The following are required clauses:
A SELECT list
A FROM clause
The following are optional clauses:
WHERE
GROUP BY
HAVING
The subquery (or subqueries) within a statement must be executed before the parent query that calls it, in order that the results of the subquery can be passed to the parent.

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true regarding the UNION operator?

A.    The number of columns selected in all SELECT statements need to be the same
B.    Names of all columns must be identical across all SELECT statements
C.    By default, the output is not sorted
D.    NULL values are not ignored during duplicate checking

Answer: A
Explanation:
The SQL UNION query allows you to combine the result sets of two or more SQL SELECT statements. It removes duplicate rows between the various SELECT statements. Each SQL SELECT statement within the UNION query must have the same number of fields in the result sets with similar data types.

QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the PROGRAMS table:
name              Null            Type
   ——           ———      ——-
PROG_ID          NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
PROG_COST                        NUMBER(8,2)
START_DATE      NOT NULL       DATE
END_DATE DATE
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE)
FROM programs;
B.    SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE))
FROM programs;
C.    SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’)
FROM programs;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:
name                 Null         Type
   ——             ———    ——-
PROD_ID             NOT NULL     NUMBER(4)
PROD_NAME                         VARCHAR2(25)
PROD_EXPIRY_DATE                 DATE
Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15,”)
FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15)
FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?

A.    Both the statements execute and give different results.
B.    Both the statements execute and give the same result.
C.    Only the first SQL statement executes successfully.
D.    Only the second SQL statement executes successfully.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SQL> SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category = ‘Internet’ ORDER BY 2 DESC
UNION
SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category = ‘TV’
UNION
SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category =’Radio’;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A.    It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY.
B.    It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the ORDER BY clause with
SET operators.
C.    It executes successfully but ignores the ORDER BY clause because it is not located at the end
of the compound statement.
D.    It produces an error because the ORDER BY clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last SELECT statement.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the ORDER BY Clause in Set Operations
The ORDER BY clause can appear only once at the end of the compound query. Component queries cannot have individual ORDER BY clauses. The ORDER BY clause recognizes only the columns of the first SELECT query.
By default, the first column of the first SELECT query is used to sort the output in an ascending order.
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QUESTION 1
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

A.    Customer / Business Needs
B.    Service Release
C.    Service Requirements
D.    Service Solution

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

A.    Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B.    Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C.    Ensure delivery and support of a service
D.    Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking the overall service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun

A.    2, 3 and 4 only
B.    1, 2 and 4 only
C.    1, 2 and 3 only
D.    1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A.    Service level agreements (SLAs)
B.    Third-party contracts
C.    The service portfolio
D.    Operational level agreements (OLAs)

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?

A.    To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B.    To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C.    To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D.    To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A.    Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B.    Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C.    Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D.    Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Availability Management
B.    Service Level Management
C.    Continual Service Improvement
D.    Business Relationship Management

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) model / approach?

A.    Implementing service and process improvements
B.    Reviewing measurable improvements
C.    Creating a baseline
D.    Defining measurable targets

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A.    Data
B.    Knowledge
C.    Wisdom
D.    Information

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A.    Incident Management
B.    Request Fulfillment
C.    Release and Deployment Management
D.    Access management

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

A.    Both of the above
B.    Neither of the above
C.    2 only
D.    1 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A.    To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B.    To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C.    To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D.    To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes

A.    All of the above
B.    1 and 2only
C.    2 and 3 only
D.    1 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special

A.    1 and 3only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

A.    Serviceability
B.    Availability
C.    Capacity
D.    Continuity

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record

A.    1 only
B.    2only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

A.    1 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

A.    CSI register
B.    Known error database
C.    Capacity management information system
D.    Configuration management database

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

A.    All of the above
B.    1, 2 and 3 only
C.    2 and 4 only
D.    3 and 4 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A.    Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B.    Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C.    Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D.    Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A.    Do
B.    Perform
C.    Implement
D.    Measure

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

A.    Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
B.    Strategic, tactical and operational
C.    Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
D.    Technology, process and service

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers

A.    All of the above
B.    1 and 3 only
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A.    User
B.    Customer
C.    Supplier
D.    Administrator

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

A.    Request fulfilment
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Service desk
D.    IT finance

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

A.    The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B.    A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C.    A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D.    An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A.    Knowledge
B.    Information
C.    Wisdom
D.    Data

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record

A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert

A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 4 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms

A.    None of the above
B.    Both of the above
C.    1 only
D.    2 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A.    Change Management
B.    Service Transition
C.    Service Strategy
D.    Service Design

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

A.    Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.    Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.    Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.    Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?

A.    Implementing service and process improvements
B.    Reviewing measurable improvements
C.    Creating a baseline
D.    Defining measurable targets

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

A.    The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B.    The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C.    An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D.    An SLA for a service with no customers

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

A.    Capacity Management
B.    Governance
C.    Service Design
D.    Service Level Management

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment. Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)

A.    They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B.    They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C.    They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D.    They can be manually generated by the administrator.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs ?Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system- defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one user-defined capability at a time.

Read more

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QUESTION 1
A user has a perimeter firewall and up-to-date antivirus software. The user is asking what else they can do to improve their security. Which of the following will have the MOST impact on network security? (Select TWO).

A.    Install additional antivirus software
B.    Disable screen savers
C.    Conduct a daily security audit
D.    Assign security rights based on job roles
E.    Use strong passwords

Answer: DE
Explanation:
To improve security, assign security rights based on job roles. You need to give least amount of privilege to users so that they can do their jobs without having access to resources that have nothing to do with their job roles.

QUESTION 2
Drag and Drop Questions
 clip_image002[10]
Answer:
 clip_image002[12]

QUESTION 3
A technician is trying to prevent a local application from reaching the web due to security concerns. Which of the following solutions could BEST prevent the application from reaching the web? (Select TWO).

A.    Configure the workstation for a static IP
B.    Disable all wireless network connections
C.    Remove shortcuts to the application
D.    Block the application in Windows Firewall
E.    Change network location to Work
F.    Reroute the web address in HOSTS file

Answer: DF
Explanation:
Use Windows firewall to restrict an application from reaching the web. Alternatively you can also reroute the web address in the HOST file.

QUESTION 4
A user has downloaded and installed a browser add-on that causes the browser to hang. The PC has very slow system response when rebooted. Which of the following should a technician do to troubleshoot this problem?

A.    Run System Restore, update antivirus program, and run an antivirus scan.
B.    Remove all Internet temporary files, run an antivirus scan, and reboot using Last Known Good Configuration.
C.    Remove all temporary files, turn off System Restore, update and run an antivirus scan.
D.    Run an antivirus scan, Run Disk Cleanup, and reboot into Safe Mode.

Answer: C
Explanation:
This might be the sign of a virus infecting the system. First, remove all temporary Internet files on your computer. Viruses are downloaded through software or a webpage. And normally it resides in Temporary Internet Files folder. Now turn off system restore because you don’t want to load a previous state on the computer with the virus still lingering the digital wild. Run an antivirus program to clean infected files.

QUESTION 5
– Email address tech@techies com
– Password P@SSwOrd
– Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None
– IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL
– smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS
– Company SSID Techies
– Security WPA2
– Passphrase P@SSwOrd
– SSID is not broadcasted
Instructions: You are not authorized to use the Company’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer: See Answer from Full Version
QUESTION 6
Which of the following steps would allow display output from a laptop to an external display? (Select TWO).

A.    Press the appropriate Function Key combination
B.    A second video card in the Express card slot
C.    Disconnect the integrated display
D.    Enabling second monitor in the Windows Display Settings
E.    Loading external monitor drivers on the laptop

Answer: AD
Explanation:
First enable second monitor in Windows Display settings. After that press the function key along with the assigned key to display the output on an external monitor.

QUESTION 7
When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to secure the network? (Select TWO).

A.    Disable unused ports
B.    Change the SSID
C.    Position the antennas to prevent outside access
D.    Enable MAC filtering
E.    Change the default user name

Answer: BE
Explanation:
The basic tasks to secure a network is to change SSID and the default user name. This is the basic security a user can employ to secure the network immediately.

QUESTION 8
For which of the following instances is System Restore MOST likely to be used?

A.    Deleting temporary files that are not needed.
B.    Replacing a failed hard drive with a new drive.
C.    Placing the system configuration into a prior state.
D.    Downgrading an operating system to another version.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Administrative share names are MOST commonly designated by which of the following symbols?

A.    !
B.    $
C.    :
D.    *

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After loading a new operating system, which of the following accounts is MOST often changed for security purposes?

A.    Standard User
B.    Power User
C.    Guest
D.    System

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Virtual machines help users developing cloud applications in which of the following ways?

A.    Provides an environment where the host cannot be connected to the network.
B.    Provides a platform where operating system requirements are lessened.
C.    Provides a safe, secure environment in which to test patches or application updates.
D.    Provides an environment that is never accessible from the Internet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following installation types uses an answer file as part of the installation process?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Clean installation
C.    Virtual desktop image deployment
D.    Remote network installation

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?

A.    Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B.    Change the default username and password
C.    Enable the wireless AP’s MAC filtering
D.    Enable the wireless AP’s WPA2 security

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
Which three statements insert a row into the table? (Choose three.)

A.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( NULL, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
B.    INSERT INTO employees( first_name, last_name)
VALUES( ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
C.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( ‘1000’, ‘John’, NULL);
D.    INSERT INTO employees (first_name, last_name, employee_id) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
E.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id)
VALUES (1000);
F.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘ ‘);

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Evaluate the SQL statement:
SELECT ROUND(45.953, -1), TRUNC(45.936, 2)
FROM dual;
Which values are displayed?

A.    46 and 45
B.    46 and 45.93
C.    50 and 45.93
D.    50 and 45.9
E.    45 and 45.93
F.    45.95 and 45.93

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which are DML statements? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    COMMIT
B.    MERGE
C.    UPDATE
D.    DELETE
E.    CREATE
F.    DROP…

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Evaluate the set of SQL statements:
CREATE TABLE dept
(deptno NUMBER(2),
dname VARCHAR2(14),
loc VARCHAR2(13));
ROLLBACK;
DESCRIBE DEPT
What is true about the set?

A.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table.
B.    The ROLLBACK statement frees the storage space occupied by the DEPT table.
C.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement returns an error ORA-04043: object DEPT does not exist.
D.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table only if there is a COMMIT statement introduced before the ROLLBACK statement.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee.
Which change must be made to the above syntax to calculate the annual compensation as “monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied by 12”?

A.    No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.    SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.    SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.    SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Examine the SQL statement that creates ORDERS table:
CREATE TABLE orders
(SER_NO NUMBER UNIQUE,
ORDER_ID NUMBER,
ORDER_DATE DATE NOT NULL,
STATUS VARCHAR2(10)
CHECK (status IN (‘CREDIT’, ‘CASH’)),
PROD_ID NUMBER
REFERENCES PRODUCTS(PRODUCT_ID),
ORD_TOTAL NUMBER,
PRIMARY KEY (order_id, order_date));
For which columns would an index be automatically created when you execute the above SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A.    SER_NO
B.    ORDER_ID
C.    STATUS
D.    PROD_ID
E.    ORD_TOTAL
F.    composite index on ORDER_ID and ORDER_DATE

Answer: AF

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the EMP_DEPT_VU view:
Column Name Type Remarks
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER From the EMPLOYEES table
EMP_NAME VARCHAR2(30) From the EMPLOYEES table
JOB_ID VARCHAR2(20) From the EMPLOYEES table
SALARY NUMBER From the EMPLOYEES table
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER From the DEPARTMENTS table
DEPT_NAME VARCHAR2(30) From the DEPARTMENTS table
Which SQL statement produces an error?

A.    SELECT *
FROM emp_dept_vu;
B.    SELECT department_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id;
C.    SELECT department_id, job_id, AVG(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id, job_id;
D.    SELECT job_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
WHERE department_id IN (10,20)
GROUP BY job_id
HAVING SUM(salary) > 20000;
E.    None of the statements produce an error; all are valid.

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.    selection, projection, join
B.    difference, projection, join
C.    selection, intersection, join
D.    intersection, projection, join
E.    difference, projection, product

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button and examine the data from the EMP table. The COMMISSION column shows the monthly commission earned by the employee. Which three tasks would require subqueries or joins in order to be performed in a single step? (Choose three.)
 clip_image001

A.    deleting the records of employees who do not earn commission
B.    increasing the commission of employee 3 by the average commission earned in department 20
C.    finding the number of employees who do NOT earn commission and are working for department 20
D.    inserting into the table a new employee 10 who works for department 20 and earns a commission that is equal to the commission earned by employee 3
E.    creating a table called COMMISSION that has the same structure and data as the columns EMP_ID and COMMISSION of the EMP table
F.    decreasing the commission by 150 for the employees who are working in department 30 and earning a commission of more than 800

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
You need to modify the STUDENTS table to add a primary key on the STUDENT_ID column. The table is currently empty. Which statement accomplishes this task?

A.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD PRIMARY KEY student_id;
B.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT PRIMARY KEY (student_id);
C.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY student_id;
D.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id); E.ALTER TABLE students
MODIFY CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id);

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is deploying vSphere 5.5. The administrator creates a vSphere Distributed
Switch, then uses Auto Deploy to deploy several ESXi hosts. After the hosts are deployed, the administrator notices that LACP packets are not being sent between them.
Which condition would cause this issue to occur?

A.    The LACP support settings do not exist in the Host Profile.
B.    The LACP installation bundle is not included in the Image Profile.
C.    The LACP setting is not enabled on vCenter Server.
D.    LACP has not been configured on the Auto Deploy server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured a vSphere 5.5 test environment to evaluate the Virtual SAN feature using Automatic Mode Disk Groups. The administrator needs to disable the Virtual SAN cluster while preserving the virtual machines running on that cluster.
The administrator has already installed a vSphere 5.5 Client on a Windows 7 desktop and also has access to the vSphere 5.5 Web Client.
What should the administrator do to disable the Virtual SAN?

A.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
B.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
C.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.
D.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?

A.    Private VLAN
B.    External Switch Tagging
C.    Virtual Guest Tagging
D.    Virtual Switch Tagging

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking requirements:
– The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
– Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
– Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?

A.    vSphere Essentials Plus
B.    vSphere Standard
C.    vSphere Enterprise
D.    vSphere Enterprise Plus

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator is using vSphere Replication to replicate a number of virtual machines to a recovery site. The administrator plans on enabling Storage DRS on the production site, which is running vSphere 5.5. What changes must be made in order to support this configuration?

A.    Storage DRS can be added to the existing configuration without any configuration changes
B.    Disable Storage DRS on the virtual machines utilizing vSphere Replication
C.    Change the Recovery Point Objective for the replicated virtual machines to support the additional
synchronization time
D.    Storage DRS cannot be used in conjunction with vSphere Replication

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A number of virtual machines in a vSphere 5.5 DRS cluster are connected to the same virtual switch port group. After several of these VMs are migrated to another host, an administrator notices that they have lost network connectivity. The Events tab in vCenter Server shows this error message:
Failed to initialize ethernet0.
The vmkernel log file on the host running the affected VMs contains this message:
Can’t connect device:’port group name’: Out of resources.
Which caused this issue?

A.    Network I/O Control was enabled.
B.    The DRS cluster containing the VMs was set to Fully Automated with the Migration Threshold set
to Conservative.
C.    There were insufficient uplinks configured on the virtual switches.
D.    The virtual switch port allocation was changed from the default setting.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter Servers configured with linked mode?

A.    Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B.    Multisite Single Sign-On
C.    Basic Single Sign-On
D.    Single Sign-On with Linked Mode

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Immediately after installing an ESXi host, an administrator needs to examine the following log files:
/var/log/hostd.log
/var/log/vmkernel.log
/var/log/vpxa.log
Which two connections would allow an administrator to examine these files? (Choose two.)

A.    Connecting to the Direct Console User Interface
B.    Attaching a vSphere Client directly to the ESXi host
C.    Attaching the vSphere Web Client directly to the ESXi host
D.    Attaching the vSphere Client to the vCenter Server managing the ESXi host

Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version 5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these hosts? (Choose two.)

A.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B.    Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D.    Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that, if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools upgrades?

A.    5.5
B.    5.1
C.    5.0
D.    4.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A vSphere administrator upgrades a version 5.1.0 vSphere Distributed Switch to version 5.5.0. Another vSphere administrator, unaware of this change, tries to add an ESXi version 5.1.0 host to the switch and fails.
What is causing this addition of the ESXi host to fail?

A.    The upgraded switch supports version 5.5 ESXi hosts only.
B.    The upgraded switch must be set up for backwards compatibility.
C.    The switch failed to upgrade properly.
D.    A version 5.5 ESXi host must be added to the switch before the 5.1 host.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The vSphere administrator needs to migrate a virtual machine from one ESXi 5.5 host to another ESXi 5.5 host. The virtual machine has a virtual disk that is stored in local storage.
Assuming only the vSphere Essentials licensing is in place, which technique should the administrator use to accomplish the migration?

A.    vMotion migration
B.    Cold migration
C.    Enhanced vMotion migration
D.    Storage vMotion migration

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A host in a 4-node HA\DRS cluster has failed. HA initiates restart tasks for the virtual machines on the remaining hosts in the cluster but half of them fail to restart.
What is the likely reason virtual machines fail to restart?

A.    HA admission control is blocking the restart of the virtual machines due to insufficient resources to
support the configured failover level of the cluster.
B.    The vMotion network has failed on the remaining hosts preventing the virtual machines from migrating.
C.    Storage vMotion has failed on the datastore containing the virtual machines preventing them from migrating.
D.    The failed host was the Master host in the cluster and no other hosts are able to perform the necessary
HA function to restart the virtual machines.

Answer: A
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