Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(11-20)

QUESTION 11
You have a portable computer that runs Windows 7. You configure the computer to enter sleep mode after 10 minutes of inactivity. You do not use the computer for 15 minutes and discover that the computer has not entered sleep mode. You need to identify what is preventing the computer from entering sleep mode. What should you do?

A.    At a command prompt, run Powercfg energy.
B.    At a command prompt, run Systeminfo /s localhost.
C.    From Performance Monitor, review the System Summary.
D.    From Performance Information and Tools, review the detailed performance and system information.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Command-line Power Configuration
Powercfg.exe is a command-line utility that you can use from an administrative command prompt to manage Windows 7 power settings. It is possible to use Powercfg.exe to configure a number of Windows 7 powerrelated settings that you cannot configure through Group Policy or the Advanced Plan Settings dialog box. You can use Powercfg.exe to configure specific devices so that they are able to wake the computer from the Sleep state. You can also use Powercfg.exe to migrate power policies from one computer running Windows 7 to another by using the import and export functionality.
-energy
Check the computer for common energy-efficiency and battery life problems. Provides report in Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) format.For more information on Powercfg.exe, consult the following Microsoft TechNet document:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc748940.aspx.

QUESTION 12
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your network contains a VPN server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to authenticate to the VPN server by using a smart card. Which authentication setting should you choose?

A.    CHAP
B.    EAP
C.    MS-CHAP v2
D.    PAP

Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN Server Software Requirements
VPN server software requirements for smart card access are relatively straightforward. The remote access servers must run Windows 2000 Server or later, have Routing and Remote Access enabled, and must support Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS). EAP-TLS is a mutual authentication mechanism developed for use in conjunction with security devices, such as smart cards and hardware tokens. EAP-TLS supports Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and VPN connections, and enables exchange of shared secret keys for MPPE, in addition to Ipsec. The main benefits of EAP-TLS are its resistance to brute-force attacks and its support for mutual authentication. With mutual authentication, both client and server must prove their identities to each other. If either client or server does not send a certificate to validate its identity, the connection terminates.Microsoft Windows ServerTM 2003 supports EAP-TLS for dial-up and VPN connections, which enables the use of smart cards for remote users. For more information about EAP-TLS, see the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) topic at www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/auth_eap.
mspx.
For more information about EAP certificate requirements, see the Microsoft Knowledge Base article “Certificate Requirements when you use EAP-TLS or PEAP with EAP-TLS” at http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx? scid=814394.

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
The computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. You log on to the computer by using an account named User1. You need to ensure that when you connect to Server1, you authenticate by using an account named Admin1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    From User Accounts, select Link online IDs.
B.    From Windows CardSpace, select Add a card.
C.    From Credential Manager, select Add a Windows credential.
D.    From Local Security Policy, modify the Access this computer from the network user right.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Credential Manager
Credential Manager stores logon user name and passwords for network resources, including file servers, Web sites, and terminal services servers. Credential Manager stores user name and password data in the Windows Vault. You can back up the Windows Vault and restore it on other computers running Windows 7 as a method of transferring saved credentials from one computer to another. Although Credential Manager can be used to back up some forms of digital certificates, it cannot be used to back up and restore the self- signed Encrypting File System (EFS) certificates that Windows 7 generates automatically when you encrypt a file. For this reason, you must back up EFS certificates using other tools. You will learn about backing up EFS certificates later in this lesson.
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QUESTION 14
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create a HomeGroup. You need to secure the HomeGroup to meet the following requirements:
– Allow access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to private networks.
– Block access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to public networks.
What should you do?

A.    From Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.
B.    From the HomeGroup settings in Control Panel, modify the advanced sharing settings.
C.    Configure the HomeGroup exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private) networks
and block Public networks.
D.    Configure the File and Printer Sharing exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private)
networks and block Public networks.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Firewall does not allow you to create firewall rules for specific network locations on the basis of port address. Windows Firewall does not allow you to create rules that differentiate between the home and work network locations. You can only create rules that differentiate on the basis of home and work or public network locations.
HomeGroup Connections
This option decides how authentication works for connections to HomeGroup resources. If all computers in the HomeGroup have the same user name and passwords configured, you can set this option to allow Windows to manage HomeGroup connections. If different user accounts and passwords are present, you should configure the option to use user accounts and passwords to connect to other computers. This option is available only in the Home/Work network profile.

QUESTION 15
A user named User1 uses a shared computer that runs Windows 7. User1 is a member of group named Group1. The computer contains a folder named Folder1.
You need to configure the permissions on Folder1 to meet the following requirements:
– User1 must be allowed to delete all files in Folder1.
– Members of Group1 must be able to create files in Folder1.
– All other members of Group1 must be prevented from deleting files they did not create in Folder1.
– All users must be prevented from modifying the permissions on Folder1.
What should you do?

A.    Assign Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
B.    Assign Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.
C.    Deny Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
D.    Deny Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.

Answer: A
Explanation:
File and Folder Permissions
ReadFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits viewing or accessing of the file’s contentsWriteFolders: Permits adding of files and subfoldersFiles:
Permits writing to a fileRead & ExecuteFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by files and folders Files: Permits viewing and accessing of the file’s contents as well as executing of the fileList Folder ContentsFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by folders onlyFiles: N/AModifyFolders: Permits reading and writing of files and subfolders; allows deletion of the folderFiles: Permits reading and writing of the file; allows deletion of the fileFull ControlFolders: Permits reading, writing, changing, and deleting of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits reading, writing, changing and deleting of the file

QUESTION 16
Your company has an internal Web site that requires HTTPS. The Web site’s certificate is self-signed. You have a computer that runs Windows 7 and Windows Internet Explorer 8. You use HTTPS to browse to the Web site and receive the following warning message. There is a problem with this website’s security certificate. You need to prevent the warning message from appearing when you access the Web site. What should you do?

A.    From Internet Explorer, enable InPrivate Browsing.
B.    From Internet Explorer, add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone.
C.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Personal store.
D.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Trusted Root Certification
Authorities store.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate Manager
A certificate manager can approve certificate enrollment and revocation requests, issue certificates, and manage certificates. This role can be configured by assigning a user or group the Issue and Manage Certificatespermission. When you assign this permission to a user or group, you can further refine their ability to manage certificates by group and by certificate template. For example, you might want to implement a restriction that they can only approve requests or revoke smart card logon certificates for users in a certain office or organizational unit that is the basis for a security group.Importing CertificatesYou may restore certificates and the corresponding private keys from a file.
6. Right-click the certificate store you want to import, and click Install PFX on the context menu.
7. The Certificate Import Wizard launches. Click Next.
8. In the File name text box, type the name of the certificate file that you want to import. Alternatively, you can find the file by clicking Browse.
9. Click Next. If the file specified is a Personal Information Exchange-KCS #12 (*.pfx), you will be prompted for the password. Enter the password to import the file. Click Next.
10. On the next page, select where you’d like to store the certificate. Click Next.
11. The next wizard page contains summary information about the file that you are importing. Click Finish to import the file. The certificate(s) are now ready for use by the system.

QUESTION 17
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All client computers are configured to use BranchCache. At the branch office, a computer named Computer1 is  experiencing performance issues. You need to temporarily prevent all computers from retrieving cached content from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache flush.
B.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache dump.
C.    Modify the Configure BranchCache for network files Group Policy setting.
D.    Modify the Set percentage of disk space used for client computer cache Group Policy setting.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Flush
Deletes the contents of the local BranchCache cache.

QUESTION 18
You have a standalone computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users share the computer. You need to ensure that you can read the content of all encrypted files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -importpfx.
B.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -installcert.
C.    Run Cipher.exe /r and then add a data recovery agent from the local security policy.
D.    Run Cipher.exe /rekey and then import a security template from the local security policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cipher
Displays or alters the encryption of folders and files on NTFS volumes. Used without parameters, cipher displays the encryption state of the current folder and any files it contains. Administrators can use Cipher.exe to encrypt and decrypt data on drives that use the NTFS file system and to view the encryption status of files and folders from a command prompt. The updated version adds another security option. This new option is the ability to overwrite data that you have deleted so that it cannot be recovered and accessed.When you delete files or folders, the data is not initially removed from the hard disk. Instead, the space on the disk that was occupied by the deleted data is “deallocated.” After it is deallocated, the space is available for use when new data is written to the disk. Until the space is overwritten, it is possible to recover the deleted data by using a low-level disk editor or data-recovery software.
If you create files in plain text and then encrypt them, Encrypting File System (EFS) makes a backup copy of the file so that, if an error occurs during the encryption process, the data is not lost. After the encryption is complete, the backup copy is deleted. As with other deleted files, the data is not completely removed until it has been overwritten. The new version of the Cipher utility is designed to prevent unauthorized recovery of such data.
/K Creates a new certificate and key for use with EFS. If this option is chosen, all the other options will be ignored. By default, /k creates a certificate and key that conform to current group plicy. If ECC is specified, a self-signed certificate will be created with the supplied key size. /R Generates an EFS recovery key and certificate, then writes them to a .PFX file (containing certificate and private key) and a .CER file (containing only the certificate). An administrator may add the contents of the .CER to the EFS recovery policy to create the recovery for users, and import the .PFX to recover individual files. If SMARTCARD is specified, then writes the recovery key and certificate to a smart card. A .CER file is generated (containing only the certificate). No .PFX file is genereated. By default, /R creates an 2048-bit RSA recovery key and certificate. If EECC is specified, it must be followed by a key size of 356, 384, or 521.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are members of the domain. All servers are located in the main office. You have a portable computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is joined to the domain and is located in a branch office.A file server named Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1.
You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Minimize network traffic between the main office and the branch office.
– Ensure that Computer1 can only access resources in Share1 while it is connected to the network.
What should you do?

A.    On Computer1, enable offline files.
B.    On Computer1, enable transparent caching.
C.    On Server1, configure DirectAccess.
D.    On Server1, configure Share1 to be available offline.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Transparent Caching
When you enable transparent caching, Windows 7 keeps a cached copy of all files that a user opens from shared folders on the local volume. The first time a user opens the file, the file is stored in the local cache. When the user opens the file again, Windows 7 checks the file to ensure that the cached copy is up to date and if it is, opens that instead. If the copy is not up to date, the client opens the copy hosted on the shared folder, also placing it in the local cache. Using a locally cached copy speeds up access to files stored on file servers on remote networks from the client. When a user changes a file, the client writes the changes to the copy of the file stored on the shared folder. When the shared folder is unavailable, the transparently cached copy is also unavailable. Transparent caching does not attempt to keep the local copy synced with the copy of the file on the remote file server as the Offline Files feature does. Transparent caching works on all files in a shared folder, not just those that you have configured to be available offline.

QUESTION 20
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
Your network contains a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The server is configured as a Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement point.
You need to configure the computer as a NAP client.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Services, set the Netlogon service Startup Type to Automatic.
B.    From Services, set the Network Access Protection Agent service Startup Type to Automatic.
C.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, configure the user interface settings.
D.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, enable the DHCP Quarantine Enforcement Client.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Network Access Protection
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a feature in Windows Server 2008 that controls access to network resources based on a client computer’s identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. NAP allows network administrators to define granular levels of network access based on who a client is, the groups to which the client belongs, and the degree to which that client is compliant with corporate governance policy. If a client is not compliant, NAP provides a mechanism to automatically bring the client back into compliance and then dynamically increase its level of network access.NAP Client ConfigurationNetwork Access Protection (NAP), a new feature in Windows Vista?and Windows Server?2008, allows you to control the access of client computers to network resources based on computer identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. To implement NAP, you must configure NAP settings on both servers and client computers. There are three tools that you can use to configure NAP client settings: The NAP Client Configuration console provides a graphical user interface with which you can configure NAP client settings on the local computer or in a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. The Netsh commands for NAP client provide a command-line tool that you can use to configure client computers or to create a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. If you want to manage NAP client settings on domain member client computers, you can use the Group Policy Management Console and the Group Policy Management Editor. When you configure NAP client settings in Group Policy, these settings are applied on NAP-capable domain member client computers when Group Policy is refreshed.To enable and disable the DHCP enforcement client by using the Windows interface
1. To open the NAP Client Configuration console, click Start, click All Programs, click Accessories, click Run, type NAPCLCFG.MSC, and then click OK.
2. Click Enforcement Clients.
3. Right-click DHCP Enforcement Client, and then click Enable or Disable.Network Access
Protection Agent
The Network Access Protection (NAP) agent service collects and manages health information for client computers on a network. Information collected by NAP agent is used to make sure that the client computer has the required software and settings. If a client computer is not compliant with health policy, it can be provided with restricted network access until its configuration is updated. Depending on the configuration of health policy, client computers might be automatically updated so that users quickly regain full network access without having to manually update their computer.

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Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(1-10)

QUESTION 1
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled. You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted. What should you do?

A.    Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and features.
B.    Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.
D.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
 clip_image001
Shadow info:
Shadow copies are automatically saved as part of a restore point. If system protection is enabled, Windows 7 automatically creates shadow copies of files that have been modified since the last restore point was created. By default, new restore points are created every seven days or whenever a significant system change (such as a driver or application installation) occurs.

QUESTION 2
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 7. You plan to deploy an image of the computer. You create an answer file named answer.xml. You need to ensure that the installation applies the answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    Imagex.exe /append answer.xml /check.
B.    Imagex.exe /mount answer.xml /verify.
C.    Sysprep.exe /reboot /audit /unattend:answer.xml.
D.    Sysprep.exe /generalize /oobe /unattend:answer.xml.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 3
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom (advanced) option.
C.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
D.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom option.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading Windows Vista to Windows 7 instructionsAccess the Windows 7 installation source and double-click Setup.exe. When prompted by User Account Control, click Allow. This loads the Install Windows page. Click Install Now.Other NotesYou can upgrade computers running Windows Vista to Windows 7. When you upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, all documents, settings, applications, and user accounts that existed on the computer running Windows Vista are available when the upgrade is finished. The advantage to an upgrade is that it allows you to keep the current application configuration. When you perform a migration, you need to reinstall the user’s applications on the new computer. As mentioned previously, this can be problematic in organizations that are not careful about keeping track of which specific set of applications are installed on each user’s computer. Prior to attempting to perform the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is an application that you can download from Microsoft’s Web site that will inform you if Windows 7 supports a computer running the current hardware and software configuration of Windows Vista. Prior to running the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, you should ensure that all hardware that you want to use with Windows 7, such as printers, scanners, and cameras, are connected to the computer. The Upgrade Advisor generates a report that informs you of which applications and devices are known to have problems with Windows
7. A similar compatibility report is generated during the upgrade process, but the version created by the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is more likely to be up to date.

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 7 to 100 computers on your corporate network.
You install Windows 7 on a computer. You and need to prepare the computer to be imaged. What should you do before you create the image of the computer?

A.    At the command prompt, run the Dism command.
B.    At the command prompt, run the Sysprep command.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the ImageX
command.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the Wpeutil
command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows?XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning. Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.NOT ImagexImageX is a command- line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating systemNOT WpeutilThe Windows PE utility (Wpeutil) is a command-line tool that enables you to run various commands in a Windows PE session. For example, you can shut down or restart Windows PE, enable or disable a firewall, set language settings, and initialize a network.

QUESTION 5
You have a new computer that does not have an operating system installed.
You have a virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains an installation of Windows 7.
You start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You create a partition on the computer and copy the VHD to the partition.
You need to configure the computer to start from the VHD. Which tools should you use?

A.    Diskpart.exe and Bcdboot.exe
B.    Imagex.exe and Bcdedit.exe
C.    Scanstate.exe and Loadstate.exe
D.    Wpeutil.exe and Dism.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Diskpart
Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.Bcdboot You now want to apply this customized image to the hard disks of two new computers you have purchased without operating systems. You boot each computer in turn from the Windows PE media and use ImageX to install the image. Your final step, to make the image bootable, is to use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment files to the system partition. When you reboot each new computer, it will boot into Windows 7 and will have the same settings configured and applications installed as your original computer. Take care you are not violating any licensing conditions.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 computers that run Windows XP. You need to identify which applications installed on all of the computers can run on Windows 7. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you install?

A.    Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
C.    Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
D.    Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 5.6 enables software developers, independent software vendors (ISVs), and IT professionals who work in a corporate environment to determine, before deployment within the organization, whether their applications are compatible with a new version of the Windows?operating system. ACT also enables such individuals to determine how an update to the new version will affect their applications.
You can use the ACT features to:
– Verify your application’s, device’s, and computer’s compatibility with a new version of the Windows operating system, including determining your risk assessment.
– Verify a Windows update’s compatibility, including determining your risk assessment.
– Become involved in the ACT Community, including sharing your application assessment with other ACT users.
– Test your applications for issues related to User Account Control (UAC) by using the Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool.
– Test your Web applications and Web sites for compatibility with new releases and security updates to Internet Explorer? by using the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool.

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 7. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C
Explanation:
[Need better justification]
Configuring static IP addresses
When you assign a static IP address, you need to tell the computer the IP address you want to use, the subnet mask for this IP address, and, if necessary, the default gateway to use for internetwork communications. An IP address is a numeric identifier for a computer. Ip addressing schemes vary according to how your network is configured, but they’re normally assigned based on a particular network segment.

QUESTION 8
Your network consists of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a computer named computer1.contoso.com. Your network is configured to use only IPv6. You need to request that a DNS record be created to enable users to connect to your computer by using the name dev.contoso.com.
Which type of record should you request?

A.    A
B.    AAAA
C.    HINFO
D.    NAPTR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The resolution of host names to IPv6 addresses is accomplished through DNS (apart from link-local addresses that are not stored by DNS and resolve automatically). The procedure is the same as for IPv4 address resolution with the computer name and IPv6 address pair being stored in a AAAA (quad-A) DNS resource record, which is equivalent to an A or host record for IPv4. Reverse DNS lookup that returns a computer name for an IPv6 address is implemented by a pointer (PTR) DNS resource record that is referred to the IPv6 reverse lookup zone (or tree) ipv6.arpa, which is the equivalent of the in-addr.arpa reverse lookup zone in Ipv4.
AAAAAn AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.AAn A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.HINFOHost information (HINFO) resource record. Specifies the type of CPU and operating system in the cpu_type and os_type fields, respectively, for the host DNS domain name in the owner field. Well-known CPU and operating system types that are most often used are noted in RFC 1700. This information can be used by application protocols such as FTP, which use special procedures when communicating with computers of a known CPU and operating system type.
NAPTR
The NAPTR represents a Naming Authority Pointer. NAPTR records map between sets of URNs, URLs and plain domain names and suggest to clients what protocol should be used to talk to the mapped resource. Each NAPTR record contains a service name, a set of flags, a regexp rule, an order value, a preference and a replacement. Multiple records can be chained together in a cascade to rewrite URIs in fairly sophisticated, but deterministic ways. These cascading rules have been standardized in RFC2915 and RFC3403.

QUESTION 9
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All servers are located in the main office. All servers have BranchCache enabled. Users at the branch office report that it takes several minutes to open large files located in the main office. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for branch office users to open files located in the main office. The solution must also reduce the amount of bandwidth used between the two offices. What should you do?

A.    At the main office, configure the Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler on all servers.
B.    At the main office, configure the servers to use Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).
C.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Hosted Cache mode.
D.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Distributed Cache mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Cache ModeDistributed Cache mode uses peer caching to host the branch office cache among clients running Windows 7 on the branch office network. This means that each Distributed Cache mode client hosts part of the cache, but no single client hosts all the cache. When a client running Windows 7 retrieves content over the WAN, it places that content into its own cache. If another BranchCache client running Windows 7 attempts to access the same content, it is able to access that content directly from the first client rather than having to retrieve it over the WAN link. When it accesses the file from its peer, it also copies that file into its own cache. The advantage of distributed cache mode is that you can deploy it without having to deploy a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 locally in each branch office. The drawback of Distributed Cache mode is that the contents of the cache available on the branch office LAN depend on which clients are currently online. If a client needs a file that is held in the cache of a computer that is shut down, the client needs to retrieve the file from the host server across the WAN.Hosted Cache ModeHosted Cache mode uses a centralized local cache that hosted on a branch office server running Windows Server 2008 R2. You can enable the hosted cache server functionality on a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that you use for other functions without a significant impact on performance. This is because if you found that files hosted at another location across the WAN were being accessed so frequently that there was a performance impact, you would use a solution like Distributed File System (DFS) to replicate them to the branch office instead of using BranchCache. The advantage of Hosted Cache mode over Distributed Cache mode is that the cache is centralized and always available. Parts of the distributed cache become unavailable when the clients hosting them shut down.Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)The Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) has two role services: the Compact Server and the IIS Server Extension. The Compact Server is a stand-alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, whereas the IIS Server Extension is an Internet Information Services (IIS) plug-in that requires a server running IIS. IIS Server ExtensionThe BITS IIS Server Extension lets you configure a server that is running IIS to allow BITS clients to perform background, resumable file uploads to IIS virtual directories. On completion of a file upload, the BITS Server can notify a Web application of the newly uploaded file. This allows the application to process the uploaded file. The Web application can then optionally reply to the client responsible for the upload.Compact ServerThe BITS Compact Server is a stand- alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, which allows applications to host files for BITS clients to download, and allows the asynchronous transfer of a limited number of large files between computers.QoS Packet SchedulerThe Quality of Service Packet Scheduler is a Windows platform component that is enabled by default on Windows Vista and Windows XP computers. It is, however, not enabled by default on Windows 2003 computers. This scheduler is designed to control the IP traffic for various network services, including Real Time Communications traffic. This component must be installed and enabled if the QoS markings described earlier for audio and video traffic are to be implemented by the IP stack.

QUESTION 10
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create an Encrypting File System (EFS) recovery key and certificate. You need to ensure that your user account can decrypt all EFS files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    From Credential Manager, add a Windows credential.
B.    From Credential Manager, add a certificate-based credential.
C.    From the local computer policy, add a data recovery agent.
D.    From the local computer policy, modify the Restore files and directories setting.

Answer: C
Explanation:
EFS Recovery
Recovery Agents are certificates that allow the restoration of EFS encrypted files. When a recovery agent has been specified using local policies, all EFS encrypted files can be recovered using the recovery agent private key. You should specify a recovery agent before you allow users to encrypt files on a client running Windows 7. You can recover all files that users encrypt after the creation of a recovery agent using the recovery agent’s private key. You are not able to decrypt files that were encrypted before a recovery agent certificate was specified. You create an EFS recovery agent by performing the following steps:
1. Log on to the client running Windows 7 using the first account created, which is the default administrator account.
2. Open a command prompt and issue the command Cipher.exe /r:recoveryagent
3. This creates two files: Recoveryagent.cer and Recoveryagent.pfx. Cipher.exe prompts you to specify a password when creating Recoveryagent.pfx.
4. Open the Local Group Policy Editor and navigate to the \Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\Encrypting File System node. Right-click this node and then click Add Data Recovery Agent. Specify the location of Recoveryagent.cer to specify this certificate as the recovery agent.
5. To recover files, use the certificates console to import Recoveryagent.pfx. This is the recovery agent’s private key. Keep it safe because it can be used to open any encrypted file on the client running Windows 7.

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QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[16]

Answer:
 clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:
 clip_image002[18]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A
 

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QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:
 clip_image002[12]
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

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