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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-201
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Service Provider Mobile Backhaul Solutions

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QUESTION 1
When you upgrade the BIOS firmware, what additional components will also require an upgrade on a Cisco UCS C220 M3 Series rack server?

A.    The BIOS upgrade is independent and does not require any other upgrades.
B.    When you upgrade the BIOS firmware, you must also upgrade the CIMC firmware to the same version or the server will not boot.
C.    There is no action required.
D.    An NX-OS upgrade is also required at the same time.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C220/install/C220/install.html#pgfId-1318669

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QUESTION 1
Which protection mechanism is used by the Cisco UCS Invicta appliance to protect data writes if a power outage occurs?

A.    The UPS option is available to prevent loss of power to the device.
B.    The LSI RAID card protects data in the event of power loss.
C.    The QLogic HBA card protects data in the event of power loss.
D.    The NVRAM card protects data in the event of power loss.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The NVRAM card is the actual ring buffer which protects data to be written in the case of power outages.

QUESTION 2
Which three statements about solid state drives are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Solid state drives typically exceed the capacity of hard disk drives.
B.    Solid state drives typically deliver about 1,000 times less latency than hard disk drives.
C.    Solid state drives typically deliver 5-10 times less latency than hard disk drives.
D.    Cisco best practices dictate that random and sequential workloads should not be mixed on the same solid state drive because poor performance results.
E.    Solid state drives typically deliver about 100 times the IOPS performance of hard disk drives.
F.    Solid state drives do not suffer from mechanical seek time latency.

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
SDDs have superior performance to HDD, andoutperformthen by big differences. The lack of mechanical latency incurred in HDDs allows SDD provide improved performance.

QUESTION 3
Which aspect of Cisco UCS Director offers task automation for Cisco UCS Invicta configuration?

A.    Customized workflows using the API
B.    Customized workflows using Python scripts
C.    Customized workflows using Pearl scripts
D.    Customized workflows using macros
E.    Customized workflows using JSON scripts

Answer: D
Explanation:
UCS Director provides Macros allowing you to customize workflows.

QUESTION 4
Which statement about the scaling system router is true?

A.    SSR has no management or host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
B.    SSR has no management interface but does have host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
C.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, a ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
D.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, ring buffer, and LSI RAID card.
E.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.

Answer: E
Explanation:
SSR deals with management and networking functions of the Scaling system; the other options referred to above are storage-specific, thus carried by the Scaling Node.

QUESTION 5
Which four options are four key messages for Cisco UCS Invicta solutions? (Choose four.)

A.    Cisco UCS Invicta eliminates the need for Fibre Channel connectivity.
B.    Cisco UCS Invicta replaces all other PCIe-based flash storage.
C.    Performance and deduplication storage nodes can be deployed in the same scaling system.
D.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides symmetrical write performance (writes perform about as fast as reads).
E.    Cisco UCS Invicta scaling system provides a unique architectural advantage over other all flash arrays.
F.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides scale-up performance up to 30 storage nodes.
G.    PCIe flash form factor provides Cisco UCS Invicta with the lowest latency possible.
H.    Cisco UCS Invicta concurrently provides scale-up and scale-out architectures.

Answer: CDEH
Explanation:
The architecture of Cisc Invicta allows both scale up and scale out options, providin flexibility to customize the type of storage nodes based on the needs and allowing need equal- performance for both read and write operations.

QUESTION 6
Which three options are characteristics of the Cisco UCS Invicta asynchronous replication feature? (Choose three.)

A.    A LUN can be asynchronously replicated to a NFS share.
B.    It provides for file-level replication based on a snapshot of a point in time.
C.    It is an optional licensed feature on Cisco UCS Invicta systems.
D.    It is available only on Cisco UCS Invicta scaling systems.
E.    It provides for block-level replication based on a snapshot of a point in time.
F.    It can be enabled at any time without disruption.

Answer: CEF
Explanation:
Asynchrounous replication happens either from LUN to LUN or NFS to NFS;it’s an optional feature that canbe loaded at any time without disruption.

QUESTION 7
Which option is the name of a Linux command-line I/O tool that is meant to be used for benchmark and stress/hardware verification?

A.    Bash
B.    fio
C.    X11
D.    lometer
E.    Remedy
F.    GNOME

Answer: B
Explanation:
FIO is this command line tool native to Windows and actually comes pre-packaged with Fedora 8.

QUESTION 8
Which two options are performance differences between Cisco UCS Invicta and PCIe flash memory? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco UCS Invicta consumes much less power than PCIe flash memory.
B.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides much better benefit at scale for system boot storms.
C.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides much better reduction in system boot time.
D.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides significantly better I/O latency.
E.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides significantly more I/O acceleration.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Those are the performance differences, in the other subjects stated above, both technologies are very similar.

QUESTION 9
Which interface types are supported in the PCIe slots of the scaling system router?

A.    No user configurable interface cards are supported.
B.    10 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.
C.    10 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
D.    1 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
E.    1 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which interface types are supported in the PCIe slots of the scaling system node?

A.    User-configurable interface cards are not supported.
B.    11 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.
C.    11 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
D.    2 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
E.    2 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember it’s the SSR which needs connectivity to the switching backplane.

 

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QUESTION 1
What is important to note about the Cisco UCS Invicta method of handling data reduction?

A.    De-dup is not enabled with Invicta as a benefit.
B.    It is enabled only for the first 4K blocks.
C.    It can be enabled on a PER NODE basis.
D.    It is enabled for the entire system or frame.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)

A.    The use of tail drop
B.    The use of WRED
C.    Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D.    The use of TCP congestion control

Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it?

A.    A root port
B.    An alternate port
C.    A blocked port
D.    A designated port

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the feasibility condition in EIGRP is true?

A.    The prefix is reachable via an EIGRP peer that is in the routing domain of the router.
B.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router has multiple paths to the destination.
C.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router is closer to the destination than the router.
D.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix cannot be used as a next hop to reach the destination.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the function of the stub feature in EIGRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It stops the stub router from sending queries to peers.
B.    It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router.
C.    It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the hub routers .
D.    It stops the hub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the stub routers .

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?

A.    stub
B.    named mode
C.    classic mode
D.    passive

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.)

A.    mismatch of subnet masks
B.    mismatch of network types
C.    mismatch of authentication types
D.    mismatch of instance IDs
E.    mismatch of area types

Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links.Which two statements are true about the IPv6 address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)

A.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the
virtual neighbor.
B.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual neighbor.
C.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by the
virtual neighbor.
D.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received
by the virtual neighbor.
F.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.

Answer: EF

QUESTION 8
Which field is specific to the OPSFv3 packet header, as opposed to the OSPFv2 packet header?

A.    checksum
B.    router ID
C.    AuType
D.    instance ID

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?

A.    add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B.    modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C.    modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D.    change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from
reaching the ObjectServer

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( “172.16.25.1”, 8082, 5 ) ;

A.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port
8082 to collect its data.
B.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
C.    The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
D.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on
172.16.25 1 port 8082 to collect its data.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?

A.    run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B.    edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C.    edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D.    edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the
line within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?

A.    The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B.    The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C.    The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D.    The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields:
customerName and customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?

A.    add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B.    modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C.    modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the
table created in the NCIM database
D.    no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to
all of the tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery? (Choose two.)

A.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is checked
B.    ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration >
Partial Rediscovery Agents tab
C.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is unchecked
D.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is checked
E.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is unchecked

Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?

A.    CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B.    SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C.    SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D.    DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?

A.    rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B.    rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C.    manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D.    start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name – defaults will be applied

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line installation on a Windows system?

A.    console_install.exe
B.    launchpad_console.exe
C.    launchpad.exe -console
D.    install.exe -i console

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?

A.    Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B.    Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C.    IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D.    There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity? (Choose three.)

A.    @Node
B.    @Class
C.    @bEventld
D.    @Identifier
E.    @LocalPriObj
F.    @LocalNodeAlias

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)

A.    The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B.    If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as
the same user.
C.    The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will
run as nonroot.
D.    The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and
will run as non-root.
E.    Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root
account and a non-root account.

Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

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