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QUESTION 1
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?

A.    1 hour
B.    2 hours
C.    3 hours
D.    4 hours

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-027 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the use of direct path loads when selecting from external tables in a database on a Database Machine?

A.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
require the APPEND hint to use direct path loading.
B.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, attempt to use in
direct path loading automatically.
C.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, require the APPEND
hint to use direct path loading.
D.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
are unable to use direct path loading.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A CTAS (Create table as select) will always use direct path (B, not C) load but IAS (Insert as select) statement will not. In order to achieve direct path load with an IAS statement you must add the APPEND hint to the command (A, not D).
Direct path loads can also run in parallel. You can set the parallel degree for a direct path load either by adding the PARALLEL hint to the CTAS or IAS statement or by setting the PARALLEL clause on both the external table and the table into which the data will be loaded.
Once the parallel degree has been set at CTAS will automatically do direct path load in parallel but an IAS will not. In order to enable an IAS to do direct path load in parallel you must alter the session to enable parallel DML.
Note:
* Parallel Direct Path Load
The key to good load performance is to use direct path loads wherever possible. A direct path load parses the input data according to the description given in the external table definition, converts the data for each input field to its corresponding Oracle data type, then builds a column array structure for the data. These column array structures are used to format Oracle data blocks and build index keys. The newly formatted database blocks are then written directly to the database, bypassing the standard SQL processing engine and the database buffer cache. Reference: Best Practices for Implementing a Data Warehouse on the Oracle Exadata Database Machine; Using CTAS & Exchange Partition Replace IAS for Copying Partition on Exadata

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2014 Latest CompTIA 225-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing the input environment for the proposed Document Management System (DMS), which of the following MUST be considered?

A.    Index fields
B.    Storage media
C.    Type of printers
D.    Postscript (PS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Company.com needs to deliver objects over the web and ensure that only the authorized user can view them even if disconnected from the system. What technology would apply?

A.    Storage management
B.    Digital Rights Management (DRM)
C.    Watermarking
D.    Web control management

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company.com would like to capture incoming invoices and process them through their Accounts Payable (AP) system. Which system would BEST accomplish this?

A.    Image enabled workflow oriented system
B.    SQL database system
C.    Intranet based form processing system
D.    Records management system

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An accounting firm stores electronic images of its clients tax returns in the Electronic Document Management System (EDMS). The company should be MOST concerned with:

A.    document format.
B.    network security.
C.    application integration.
D.    network bandwidth.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Many of the documents to be scanned by Company.com are sales invoices with a yellow background. A feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:

A.    image enhancement.
B.    deskew.
C.    color dropout.
D.    color enhancement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A potential risk to a project could be:

A.    regular Project Manager meetings.
B.    a risk analysis session.
C.    creating an assumptions document.
D.    allowing scope creep.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A client receives over 2,000 laser printed purchase orders daily from 1,188 customers. The scanning staff will scan, index, and perform quality assurance of the documents. Which of the following is the LEAST labor intensive method to perform indexing?

A.    ICR software
B.    Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) software
C.    OCR software
D.    Heads-down indexing

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:

A.    work monitoring.
B.    pending or holding items.
C.    support for multiple queues based on work type.
D.    sorting queues in date order.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?

A.    All-hands meetings and intranet postings
B.    Ethernet and TCP / IP
C.    E-mail and FTP
D.    Project charter and project plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Assuming an average image size of 105 KB, a 700 MB CD -R contains how many images?

A.    10,826
B.    7,580
C.    6,826
D.    15,020

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required as part of a records storage management solution?

A.    Full-text search and retrieval
B.    Boxes of paper
C.    Retention schedule
D.    Enterprise content management software

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Company.com is generating 10,000 documents a month and is considering if they should goforward with an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution or continue with the existing paper-based storage strategy. Considering the cost of both strategies the customer should:

A.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the long term.
B.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive but easier to implement and has greater
long term benefits.
C.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the near term but becomes less expensive
in the long term.
D.    stay with the current solution because it is considerably less expensive in the long term.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A.    Error handling
B.    Scan-to-folder
C.    Records management
D.    Tracking capability

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Company.com is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A.    The customer has a document capture process.
B.    The customer does not have a records management process.
C.    The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D.    The customer has an informal records management process.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA 220-701 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the access level of a user that belongs to both the Administrators and Users groups?

A.    User
B.    Administrator
C.    Power User
D.    Remote Desktop User

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following contains the user profile directory for Microsoft Windows 2000 and XP?

A.    Users
B.    My Documents
C.    Documents and Settings
D.    Application Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?

A.    The document is set to hidden.
B.    The document is locked.
C.    The document was saved as a system document.
D.    The document is owned by the first user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following will MOST likely happen if a laser printer displays `15% fuser remaining’?

A.    The printer will print according to specification.
B.    The printer will stop printing immediately.
C.    The printer will take longer to print.
D.    The printer will print blank sheets of paper.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when removing a paper jam?

A.    Open all the doors in the printer.
B.    Clear the print queue.
C.    Turn the printer off.
D.    Take the printer offline.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following does an out-of-memory error indicate on a printer?

A.    A faulty memory module in the printer.
B.    A postscript print job has been sent to the printer.
C.    A large print job has been sent to the printer.
D.    The printer firmware needs to be updated.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration?

A.    Operating system type of the connected PCs
B.    Location of the wireless router
C.    Number of PCs that will access the network
D.    Number of available Ethernet ports on the router

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A technician suspects the AC voltage into a PC power supply is bad. Which of the following tools would MOST likely be used to confirm the diagnosis?

A.    Multimeter
B.    Oscilloscope
C.    Cable tester
D.    Power supply tester

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician needs to ping a client’s machine that the technician is working on, to ensure that the network card is functioning correctly. Which of the following IP addresses should be used?

A.    10.76.0.1
B.    127.0.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    255.255.255.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).

A.    TELNET
B.    SSH
C.    POP3
D.    FTP
E.    HTTPS

Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?

A.    Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B.    Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C.    Upgrade the out-of-range users’ SSID searching software.
D.    Enable network sharing on the users’ computers that are within range.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A technician turns on a PC and before the computer boots up, the technician is prompted for a password. The technician does not know the password. Which of the following can the technician do to allow access to the PC? (Select TWO).

A.    Set the clear password jumper on the motherboard.
B.    Enter the BIOS setup and select the clear password setting.
C.    Remove the power cord from the power supply and then plug it back in.
D.    Power cycle the PC.
E.    Remove the CMOS battery for 15 minutes.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A technician is renaming files on a PC from a command prompt and is currently in the root of drive
C:. Which of the following commands should the technician use to move to a different directory?

A.    CD
B.    DIR
C.    MD
D.    RD

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is dispatched to a malware infected system. Upon arrival, the technician notices the malware’s pop-up on the screen. Which of the following boot methods would the technician utilize?

A.    Reboot in Safe Mode
B.    Reboot in Recovery Console
C.    Reboot in Last Known Good Configuration
D.    Reboot in System Debug Mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A technician is dispatched to a system that will not go beyond the Windows XP splash screen. Which of the following, after restart, would allow the technician to load Windows XP?

A.    Press F6, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
B.    Press F8, select Debug mode, login
C.    Press F8, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
D.    Press F6, select Debug mode, login

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    The administrator should execute the “Remove Access Gateway” task from the “Gateway Appliances” node in the Access Management Console.
B.    The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C.    The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D.    The administrator should uncheck the “Access Gateway” role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the “Manage Server Roles” dialog of the Access Management Console.

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA server.

Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?

A.    LDAP password
B.    Firewall access rule
C.    Authentication policy
D.    RADIUS shared secret

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.
Which stages are performed when the above block is executed? (Choose all that apply)
 clip_image001[4]

A.    Bind
B.    Parse
C.    Fetch
D.    Execute

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which system events can be used to create triggers that fire both at database and schema levels? (Choose all that apply)

A.    AFTER LOGON
B.    AFTER STARTUP
C.    BEFORE SHUTDOWN
D.    AFTER SERVERERROR

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which of the following scenarios would you recommend using PL/SQL records?

A.    when you want to retrieve an entire row from a table and perform calculations
B.    when you know the number of elements in advance and the elements are usually accessed sequentially
C.    when you want to create a separate lookup table with multiple entries for each row of the main table,
and access it through join queries
D.    when you want to create a relatively small lookup table, where the collection can be constructed in
memory each time a subprogram is invoked

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the employees table.
 clip_image001[6]
Execute the following block of code:
 clip_image002[9]
What is the outcome?

A.    It gives an error because group functions cannot be used in anonymous blocks
B.    It executes successfully and correctly gives the result of the sum of salaries in department 60.
C.    It executes successfully and incorrectly gives the result of the sum of salaries in department 60.
D.    It gives an error because the variable name and column name are the same in the where clause of the select statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Examine the following snippet of PL/SQL code:
 clip_image001[8]
View the exhibit for table description of EMPLOYEES table. The EMPLOYEES table has 200 rows.
 clip_image002[11]
Identify open statement for opening the cursor that fetches the result as consisting of employees with JOB_ID as `ST_CLERK’ and salary greater than 3000.

A.    OPEN c1 (NULL, 3000);
B.    OPEN c1 (emp_job, 3000);
C.    OPEN c1 (3000, emp_salary);
D.    OPEN c1 (`ST_CLERK’, 3000)
E.    OPEN c1 (EMP_job, emp_salary);

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table
 clip_image001[10]
The salary of EMPLOYEE_ID 195 is 2800.
You execute the following code
 clip_image001[12]
What is the outcome?

A.    It gives an error because only the innermost block is labeled
B.    It gives an error because the same variable name cannot be used across all the nested blocks.
C.    It executes successfully and displays the resultant values in the following sequence- 1000, 2800
50000, 2800.
D.    It executes successfully and displays the resultant values in the following sequence: 1000, 2800,
50000, 1000.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about the usage of the cursor for loops? (Choose two.)

A.    The cursor needs to be closed after the iteration is complete.
B.    The implicit open, fetch, exit, and close of the cursor happen.
C.    The record type must be explicitly declared to control the loop.
D.    The PL/SQL creates a record variable with the fields corresponding to the columns of the cursor result set.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true about the execution of the code if the query in the PL/SQL block returns no rows?

A.    The program abruptly terminates and an exception is raised.
B.    The program executes successfully and the output is No ROWS_FOUND.
C.    The program executes successfully and the query fetches a null value in the V_LNAME variable.
D.    Program executes successfully, fetches a NULL value in the V_LNAME variable and an exception is raised.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Consider the following scenario:
Local procedure a calls remote procedure B
Procedure A was compiled at 8 AM.
Procedure A was modified and recompiled at 9 AM.
Remote procedure B was later modified and recompiled at 11 AM.
The dependency mode is set to timestamp.
Which statement correctly describes what happens when procedure A is invoked at 1 PM?

A.    Procedure A is invalidated and recompiled immediately.
B.    There is no effect on procedure A and it runs successfully.
C.    Procedure B is invalidated and recompiled again when invoked.
D.    Procedure A is invalidated and recompiles when invoked the next time.

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Examine the following snippet of code from the DECLARE section of PL/SQL
DECLARE
Cut_name VERCHAR2 (20) NOT NULL := `tom jones’:
Same_name cut_name\TYPE:
Which statement is correct about the above snippets of code?

A.    The variable inherits only the data type from the CUT_NAME variable.
B.    The same_name variable inherits only the data type and default value from the CUT_NAME variable.
C.    The 3ake_nake variable inherits the data type, constraint, and default value from the CUT_NAME
variable.
D.    The 3ake_nake variable inherits only the data type and constraint from the CUT_NAME variable
resulting in an error

Answer: AB
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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.
You have to display ORDER_ID, ORDER_DATE, and CUSTOMER_ID for all those orders that were placed after the last order placed by the customer whose CUSTOMER_ID is 101.
Which query would give you the desired output?
 clip_image002[1]

A.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(order_date)
FROM orders) AND
Customer_id = 101;
B.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ANY (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
C.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
D.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date IN (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer id = 101);

Answer: C

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